Cùng tham khảo “Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Văn Trỗi, Tiên Phước” được chia sẻ dưới đây để giúp các em biết thêm cấu trúc đề thi như thế nào, rèn luyện kỹ năng giải bài tập và có thêm tư liệu tham khảo chuẩn bị cho kì thi sắp tới đạt điểm tốt hơn.
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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Văn Trỗi, Tiên Phước
- PHÒNG GDĐT TIÊN PHƯỚC MATRIX FOR THE END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 6)
TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN VĂN TRỖI School year: 2023-2024
No. of Com Low High
PARTS M Task types Re
Ques App App
a
TL TN TL TN TL
r TN TL TN
k
LISTENIN 5 1,0 - Listen and 0,6 0,4
G tick
(2,0)
5 1,0 - Listen and 0,6 0,4
circle
2 0.4 Pronunciat 0,4
LANGUA ion:
GE Indicate the
COMPON word whose
ENTS underlined
(2,0) part is
pronounced
differently
form the
others.
3 0.6 Vocabulary 0,2 0,2 0,2
: MCQs:
Circle the
best option
4 0,8 Grammar: 0,4 0,2 0,2
MCQs:
Circle the
best option
1 0,2 Speaking: 0,2
MCQs:
Circle the
best option
READING 4 0,8 Read the 0,4 0,2 0,4
(2,0) text and
circle the
best answer
- 6 1,2 Read the 0,4 0,6
text and fill
in the blank
2 0,4 (Verb form) 0,4
WRITING Put the
(2,0) verbs in
brackets in
the correct
form
4 0,8 (Sentence 0, 8
transformat
ion)
Rewrite the
sentences
so as its
meaning
keeps
unchanged
2 0,8 (Reordering
) Reorder 0,8
the words
or phrases
into a
correct
sentence
TOTAL (10,0) 38 8 3,4 2,2 1,6 0,8
.
0
SPEAKIN 2 0,4 Introductio 0,4
G n
5 1,0 Topic 0,2 0,8
speaking
3 0,6 Questions 0,4 0,2
and Answer
Grand Total 48 1
(10,0) 0
4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0
,
0
- SPECIFICATION FORTHE 1st MID-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 6)
C No. of Low High
PARTS Mark Re
O Ques App App
N
T
E
N TL TN TL TN TL
T TN TL TN
S
-Q1-5: - Listen to
Tick T or two
F students
talking
about
5 1,0 0,6 0,4
things
they will
do and
tick T or F
LISTENI
NG
-Q6-10: - Listen to
(2,0)
Choose Hai and
the best Alice
answer talking
about their
5 1,0 0,6 0,4
favorite
sports and
circle the
best
answer
Pronunci 2 0,4 Pronunci 0,4
ation: ation:
-Q11: Circle the
sounds word
/au/ vs /ə/ whose
-Q12: underlined
LANGUA sounds / part is
GE θ / vs / ð / pronounce
COMPO d
- NENTS differently
(2,0) from the
others.
Vocabular 3 0,6 Vocabular 0,2 0,2
y: y: MCQs:
-Q13: 1 Circle the 0,2
word best
about option
appliance
-Q14: 1
word
about
adjective (
food)
- Q15: 1
word
about
helping
the
environme
nt
- Grammar
:
-Q16: 2 Grammar
words : MCQs:
about Circle the
articles best
-Q17: a option
word
about 4 0,8 0,4 0,2 0,2
imperative
-Q18: a
word about
conjunction
-Q19:a
word about
possessive
pronoun
Speaking: Speaking:
-Q20: 1 MCQs:
answer Circle the
about best
1 0,2 0,2
expressing option
congratul
ations
READIN -Q21: 5 1,0 0,4 0,2 0,4
G Choose
(2,0) the best
answer for Read the
Wh- text about
question Jim’s
-Q22: favorite
Choose room and
the best circle the
answer for best
Wh- answer
question
-Q23:
Choose
the best
answer for
Wh-
- question
-Q24:
Choose
the best
answer for
Wh-
question
-Q25:
Choose
the best
answer for
Wh-
question
-Q26: 1
word Read and
about a fill the
number blanks
-Q27: 1 about a
word friend( Cl
about a oze test)
verb
- Q28: 1
word
5 1,0 0,4 0,6
about a
verb
- Q29: 1
word
about a
verb
- Q30: 1
word
about an
auxiliary
-Q31: Put (Verb 0,4
WRITIN the verb in 2 0,4 form) Put
G correct the verbs
(2,0) form in bracket
-Q32: Put in the
the verb in correct
correct form
form
- - Q33: (Sentence
Rewrite transforma
sentence 4 0,8 tion)
about Rewrite
possessive the
pronoun sentences
- Q34: so as their
Rewrite meaning
sentence keeps
about unchanged
conjunctio 0,8
ns
- Q35:
Rewrite
sentence
about
exclamati
on
- Q36:
Rewrite
sentence
about
adjective
“intereste
d”
- Q37: Reorder 0,8
Reorder the words
the words to make a
or phrases 2 0,8 complete
to make a sentence
complete
sentence
(First
conditiona
l sentence)
- Q38:
Reorder
the words
or phrases
to make a
complete
sentence
- (using
with
might)
Introducti Introduce
on: 2 0,4 themselve
Q39: A s
sentence
about
name/age
0,4
Q40: A
sentence
about
class/
SPEAKI
living
NG
place
Q41-45: Look at
Answer 5 1,0 the
about the pictures 0,2 0,8
topic and
answer
Q46-48: Answer
Answer 3 0,6 the
0,4 0,2
the questions
questions
Grand total 48 10,0 4,0 2,0 1,0
- PHÒNG GDĐT TIÊN PHƯỚC KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC II NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN VĂN TRỖI Môn : TIẾNG ANH – Lớp 6
Thời gian: 60 phút( không kể thời gian giao đề
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
MÃ ĐỀ 6A
( Đề gồm 04 trang)
I. Listening
Task 1. Listen to two students talking about the things they will do if they become a president of 3R club and tick () T
(true) or F (False). (1,0 pts)
T F
1. Mi is in class 6A.
2. Mi thinks they can recycle things in the bins.
3. At the book fair, students can sell their old books.
4. Nam is in class 6E.
5. He will organize uniform fairs.
Task 2. Listen to Hai and Alice talking about their favorite sports. Choose A, B or C for the correct option. (1,0 pts)
6. Hai plays …………. at school.
A. volleyball B. football C. chess
7. Hai practices karate……………..times a week.
- A. five B. three C. six
8. Karate makes him strong and ………………
A. comfortable B. happy C. confident
9. Alice likes watching sports………………
A. on the internet B. in the stadium C. on TV
10. Alice’s hobby is playing …………………..
A. chess B. games C. volleyball
II. Language components
Task 1. Choose the word with a different way of pronunciation in the underlined part. (0,4 pts)
11. A. around B. found C. famous D. sound
12. A. theatre B. than C. think D. earth
Task 2. Choose the best option to complete each sentence. (1,6 pts)
13. Emily no longer washes dishes and bowls by hand because her father bought her a(n) last month.
A. computer B. freezer C. dishwasher D. electric cooker
14. If you come to Vietnam, don’t forget to try its street food.
A. tasty B. easy C. helpful D. friendly
15. When you create new products from used materials, you are .
A. recycling B. reducing C. reusing D. producing
16. I’m writing poem. poem is about 3Rs.
A. a/ The B. a/ A C. an/ The D. the/ The
exercise.
17. to get up early to do some
A. To try B. Don’t try C. Try D. Trying
I spend a lot of time outdoors.
18. I enjoy sports,
- B. but C. or D. and
A. so
19. The book is , but you are welcome to read it.
A. my B. yours C. mine D. your
20. “Last Sunday, I played badminton with Na, and I won the first time.
Mi:
Mai : .
A. Congratulations! B. Thank you.
C. Good luck to you! D. See you later.
III. Reading
Task 1: Read the passage. Circle the best answer A, B or C to each of the questions. (1 pt)
Paris is home to hundreds of museums, including the largest museum in the world, the Louvre. Located on the bank of the
Seine, the Louvre Museum covers an area of more than 70,000 square meters. It’s as big as 280 tennis courts. The museum is
one of the most recognizable landmarks of Paris. Each year, millions of people visit the museum. The museum is one of the
reasons that Paris is among the top-visited cities in the world. Following a record number of visitors in 2019, the museum
decided to limit the number of guests to avoid overcrowding. According to the museum director, he didn’t want more visitors
but the museum aimed to provide a better experience for all.
21. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The city of Paris B. The Louvre Museum C. Museums in Paris
22. Where is the museum located?
A. On Seine river bank B. On the Seine river C. Next to a tennis court
23. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. There are hundreds of museums in Paris.
B. There are 280 tennis courts in Paris.
- C. There are millions of visitors in Paris.
24. According to the passage, why is Paris one of the most visited cities in
the world?
A. Because of its hundreds of museums.
B. Because of the Louvre’s annual visitors.
C. Because of Paris’s beauty.
25. Why did the museum limit the number of visitors?
A. Because the museum needed to break the record.
B. Because the museum wanted guests to have a better experience.
C. Because the director dislikes crowded places.
Task 2. Read the text and fill in the blank with the suitable words from the box. (1,0 pt)
MY DREAM FLAT
I have a dream of having my own flat. It’ll be in the centre of the city. There will be (26) rooms in it: a living
room, a bedroom, a bathroom and a kitchen. I’ll (27) a big TV and a DVC player in my bedroom. They’ll help me to
relax and (28) life. I’ll have a laptop to (29) with my friends. My flat will be on the top floor and there
(30) be any neighbours, so it’ll be OK to play loud music.
IV. Writing
Task 1. Put the verbs in brackets in the correct form (0,4 pts)
31. John, you are late. The match ___________ (start) minutes ago.
- 32. In 2050, I ___________ (travel) to the Moon in super car.
Task 2. Complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first. Use the word in brackets, NO MORE
THAN FOUR WORDS. (0,8 pts)
33. This is a present for you. (YOURS)
This
34. The show was interesting. It was too long. (BUT)
The show was interesting, too long.
35. The five-star hotel is so expensive! (AN)
What ___________________ hotel!
36. She likes doing sports. (INTERESTED)
She is sports.
Task 3. Reorder the words or phrases to make a complete sentence. (0,8 pts)
37. will / reusable / reduce / use / more / shopping / we / bags, / help / plastic / If / we / waste / .
38. might/ have/ some/ My/ a/ house/ smart/ robots/ and/ TV/.
Đối với em Dương, Hiệp, Quốc: bỏ phần Task 3 trong phần Writing
- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
I. Listening (2 điểm).
Task 1. (1 điểm). Chọn đúng mỗi từ đạt 0,2 điểm
1T 2F 3F 4T 5T
Task 2. (1 điểm). Mỗi câu làm đúng đạt 0,2 điểm
6A( volleyball) 7B( three) 8C(confident) 9C ( on TV) 10A( chess)
II. Language components (2 điểm)
Task 1. (0,4 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,25 điểm
11. C ( famous) 12. B( than)
Task 2. (1,6 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm
13. C( dishwasher) 14.A( tasty) 15.A( recycling) 16.A( a/ The)
17.C( try) 18.A( so) 19.C(mine) 20.A( congratualations
III. Reading
Task 1(1,0 điểm).Chọn đúng mỗi từ để điền vào chỗ trống đạt 0,2 điểm
21. B 22,A 23. B 24. A 25. B
Task 2 (1,0 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm
26. four 27. have 28. enjoy 29. contact 30. won’t
IV. Writing
Task 1 (0,4 điểm). Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm
- 31. Started 32. Will travel
Task 2 (0,8 điểm). Làm đúng trọn vẹn mỗi câu đạt 0,2 điểm
Điều chỉnh bản điểm phần viết cho HSKT: mỗi câu đúng trọn vẹn đạt 0,4 điểm
33. This present is yours.
34. The show was interesting, but it was too long.
35. What an expensive five- star hotel!
36. She is interested in doing sports.
Tùy theo mức độ làm bài của học sinh, giáo viên ghi điểm cho phù hợp.
Task 3 0,8 điểm). Làm đúng trọn vẹn mỗi câu đạt 0,4 điểm
Đối với em Dương, Hiệp, Quốc: bỏ phần Task 3 trong phần Writing
37. If we use more reusable shopping bags, we will help reduce plastic waste.
38. My house might have a smart TV and some robots.
Or My house might have some robots and a smart TV.
Tùy theo mức độ làm bài của học sinh, giáo viên ghi điểm cho phù hợp.
Transcript:
Task 1
Mi: I'm Mi from class 6A. If I become the president of the Club. I'll first talk to my friends about putting a recycling bin in every
classroom. We can reuse the things we have in these bins. Secondly, I'll organize some book fairs. Students can exchange their used
books at these fairs.
Nam: I'm Nam from class 6E. If I become the president of the Club, I'll be fun and help the environment. Next, I'll organize some
uniform fairs. This is where students can exchange used uniforms with other students.
Task 2:
Hello. My name's Hai. I love sport. I play volleyball at school and I often go cycling with my dad at the weekend. But my favourite sport
is karate. I practice it three times a week. It makes me strong and confident.
My name's Alice. I'm twelve years old. I don't like doing sport very much, but I like watching sport on TV. My hobby is playing chess.
My friend and I play chess every Saturday. I sometimes play computer games, too. I hope to create a new computer game one day.
- DUYỆT CỦA TỔ CHUYÊN MÔN GIÁO VIÊN RA ĐỀ
Nguyễn Văn Ân Nguyễn Thị Duyên
DUYỆT CỦA BAN LÃNH ĐẠO NHÀ TRƯỜNG
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