Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm học 2012-2013 – Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo Ninh Bình (Đề chính thức)

Chia sẻ: _ _ | Ngày: | Loại File: DOC | Số trang:23

Thêm vào BST

Báo xấu

36
lượt xem 3
download

Download Vui lòng tải xuống để xem tài liệu đầy đủ

Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm học 2012-2013 – Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo Ninh Bình (Đề chính thức) thông tin đến các bạn học sinh các bài tập phục vụ cho việc học tập, ôn luyện vượt qua kì thi gặt hái nhiều thành công.

Chủ đề:

Bình luận(0) Đăng nhập để gửi bình luận!

Lưu

Nội dung Text: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh lớp 12 năm học 2012-2013 – Sở Giáo dục và Đào tạo Ninh Bình (Đề chính thức)

SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT Kỳ thi thứ nhất Năm học 2012–2013 ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIÊNG ANH ́ Ngày thi 09 /10/2012 (Thời gian 180, phút không kể thời gian phát đề) Đề thi gồm 12 câu, trong 07 trang HỌ VÀ TÊN, CHỮ KÍ CỦA SỐ PHÁCH ĐIỂM BÀI THI GIÁM KHẢO (Do CTHĐ chấm ghi) Bằng Giám khảo 1: số:.......................... ...................................................... Giám khảo 2: Bằng ...................................................... chữ:....................... (Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào các tờ đề thi) PART A: PHONETICS (1 point) I. Identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of other words in the group 1. A. redundant B. descendant C. relevant D. consultant 2. A. argumentative B. psychological C. contributory D. hypersensitive 3. A. compensate B. sacrifice C. renovate D. contribute 4. A. associate B. original C. stability D. accelerate 5. A. tremendous B. luminous C. enormous D. autonomous 1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (9 points) II. Choose the correct answer to each question (2 points) 1. The brochure stated the hotel was situated ............. beside the sea. A. direct B. right C. precise D. exact 2. All candidates will be treated equally_____ of their age or background. A. notwithstanding B. discounting C. irrelevant D. irrespective 3. “Another cup of coffee?” – “No, but thanks ..............” A. not at all B. for all C. all the same D. you for all 4. You are late again. Try to be ................... in future. A. accurate B. punctual C. efficient D. reliable 5. In some educational systems, ……………education is postsecondary education up to the level of a bachelor’s degree. A. graduate B. postgraduate C. undergraduate D. lowergraduate 6. . ……Japanese he speaks is often heard in the countryside. A. A B. An C. Any D. The 7. The majority of nurses are women, but in the higher ranks of the medical profession women are in a ………….. A rarity B. minority C. scarcity D. minimum 8. Why don’t the police take _____ measures against crime? A. affective B. ineffective C. effective D. efficient 9. ……….the consequences, I would never have contemplated getting involved. A. If I realized B. Had I realized C. Unless I realized D. When I had realized 1
10. The Silence of the Lambs is the most ................ film I’ve ever seen. A. terrified B. terrifying C. scared D. excited 1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________ III. Put the correct form of the verbs (1 point) What you (1. mean) ...................., the accident (2. be) ............ my fault? If it (3. be) .........., surely I (4. not call) ............... the police. (5. Be) .................... it not for Mary’s help, I (6. not be) ................. able to take part in the competition. When the school finally (7. close) ............ its doors in 1988, Mr. Roberts (8. teach) .............. there for 25 years. As a result, he (9. decide) ............. to take early retirement and (10. be) ........... now to be seen tending his garden most sunny afternoon. 1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________ IV. Put the correct form of the words in brackets (2 points ) 1. People used to suffer from their lifetime physical ________ (normal) 2. If you think I am going to marry you, then I’m afraid you’re very much ____(take). 3. The man was found guilty of fraud and sentenced to three years _____ (prison) 4. He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later _____ when a medical check proved that he had been taking drugs (qualify) 5. The recent hurricane caused _____ damaged (wide) 6. Jim is one of the most _____ members of the committee (speak) 7. We try to ensure the ____ of our employees (be) 8. The dictionaries are with the other_______ books. (refer) 9. I was annoyed at his _________to cooperate. (refuse) 10. Thank you for your present. It was very ________ of you to send it. (think) 1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________ V. Fill in the gaps in the letter with a suitable preposition (2 points) Dear Mr Rees, Thank you for your letter of 21 June. I was very disturbed by your account (1)____ what happened (2)______ our hotel last week and I am writing to apologize for this. I can understand that you were shocked by the way the employee spoke to you. There can be no excuse (3)_____such behaviour and I fully understand why you felt the need to complain (4)_____the situation. I can provide no explanation _____(5) the way the receptionist behaved. Our hotel group has a reputation for being good at looking (6)_____ our customers, and I am very sorry that your experience (7)_____our service did not confirm this. I intend to deal with the staff member appropriately and I will ensure that she does not repeat this behaviour by sending her (8)______ a retraining course next week. I would like to assure you that the behaviour you encountered is not typical (9)_____our staff. As the manager, I am responsible for all of our employees, so please accept my apologizes again and this voucher worth $50 to spend in any (10)____ our hotels 2
1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________ VI. In most lines of the following text, there is one word which is either grammatically incorrect or does not fit in with the sense of the text. Find this wrong word and then write in the space given. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines with a tick (  ). Two examples are given (0) and (00) (2 points) Midsummer, the celebration of the turning of the sun, has been being the 0. being highlight of the northern summer for centuries an event full of symbolism, 00. √ customs, magic and superstitions. In Finland, Midsummer night is so short 1………. as that evening duck flows into morning dawn almost unnoticed. Even in 2………. southern Finland, midnight is the best described as strong twilight. 3………. Midsummer night was, most of all, the cerebration of greenery and fruit. Nature is in a full bloom then and the day is neverending. It was 4………. customary throughout Finland to bring branches and greenery to indoors on 5………. Midsummer Eve. Houses were so thoroughly cleaned and decorated with 6………. birch branches and flower garlands. This ‘indoor forest’ was complete when leaves on the scrubbed floor gave out a fresh forest aroma. Midsummer is 7……… still the Finns’ most important summer cerebration. They gather together around the bonfire to make dance, play and be with family and friends 8……… themselves. In some areas Midsummer poles decorated with flowers garlands and 9……… leaves are erected for the festivities. Although some of the old ceremonies are now performed only for fun, Midsummer night, as bathed in the strange white 10……… light of the North, is still mysterious. PART C: READING (6 points) VII. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the passage with ONE suitable word (2 points) RULES, LAWS AND NORMS Any discussion of criminal behaviour requires understanding of the difference in meaning of rules, laws, and norms. Rules may be (1)_____, or formal and written. The rules of dress or how we eat are unwritten guides. (2) ______contrast, the rules of a factory, for example safety regulations, are usually written down and serve (3)____strict regulators of behaviour. Laws are perhaps, the best example of written, formal rules and are decided upon by powerful and influential groups in society. In order to ensure that everyone adheres (4)_____ the laws, there are specific penalties, including fines or imprisonment, for those (5)_____ guilty of breaking them .Unlike other rules, (6)_____ as rules of dress or of grammar, laws can always be enforced by agencies like the police and the courts. A norm is very much a general term; it is an expected (7)____ of behaviour shared by member of a social group. Norms can be thought of as unwritten rules. Example of these are that parents should play with their children, or that you should (8)_____ in the appropriate way to a “good morning” greeting. Norms are part of the culture of a (9)_____ and are (10)_____ on from one generation to the next over time. 1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5_________ 6________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________ 3
VIII. Read and choose the best answer for each question (2 points) Sigmund Fred was not a literary theorist. However, he did contribute to critical theory through both his theories and his use of art to show that the application of psychology can extend to the highest forms of cultures. Freud was always interested in literature, and he drew some of the best illustrations of his theories from classic poems and plays. Freud saw the unconscious as the impetus of both natural and psychic activity. Therefore, the same principles operated in both, and that the same mechanisms – such as displacement and symbolization – applied. While Freud was not the first to note the importance of the unconscious mind, he was the first to attempt to coherent theory of its operation and function. He argued that the unconscious operates according to universal law and is crucial to all aspects of mental life that involve fantasy, or diversion from reality. From this point of view, it is natural to apply Freudian principles to imaginative literature. Writers transform individual, unconscious fantasy into universal art – a kind of formal fantasy halfway between a reality that denies wishes and a world of imagination in which every wish is granted. In focusing on the unconscious origins for literature, Freud was in a sense reviving the traditional idea of divine inspiration. (1) Philosophers and art theorists have often turned to such a theory of the imagination to explain multiple meanings, repetition, and any apparent disorder in art. Similarly, psychoanalysis uses the theory of the unconscious to explain examples of “disorder” in consciousness, such as dreams. (2) This analogy allowed Freud to suggest that fantasies called art could be interpreted in the same way as dreams. Writers, as Freud noted, have always seen great significance in dreams. In his view, portrayals of dreams in works of literature supported his own theories about their structures, mechanism, and interpretation. For example, the mechanisms of displacement and symbolization obviously resemble the literary devices of metaphor and symbolism. (3) Critics of Freud have objected that the nonlogical processes of the unconscious do not resemble the conscious effort that results in work of literature. Freud would reply that while conscious thought is necessary to produce works of art, the creative source of art remain in the conscious. In this view, conscious activity merely obscures what is truly important in art. What interested Freud were the deep unconscious structure literature shares with myth and religion, as well as with dreams. The apparent individuality of literature was not as significant as its ultimate universality. (4) 1. Which of the following best states the main idea of the reading? A. The best way to understand the creation of literature is through Freud’s theory of psychoanalysis. B. Freud argued convincingly that both psychic phenomena and literature may be interpreted with reference to the unconscious. C. Creating works of literature is very similar to dreaming. D. Freud’s theories explain why both dreams and literature contain various form of disorder. 2. According to the passage, which of the following is true of Freud A. He was a literary theorist. B. He has had an influence on literary theory. C. He wrote several plays and poems that illustrate his theories D. He was the first to discover the unconscious. 3. The word impetus could be best replace by A. Source B. opposite C. form D. reason 4
4. The word both refers to A. displacement and symbolization B. repression and the economy of psychic expenditure C. cultural and psychic phenomena D. principles and mechanisms 5. The author uses the phrases formal fantasy in order to A. describe the nature of literature. B. describe the nature of the unconscious C. give an example of diversion from reality D. give an example of a Freud principle 6. Which is the best place for the following sentence? “And like dreams, literary works can have more than one interpretation” A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D. (4) 7. According to the passage, displacement in dreams is similar to A. symbolization B. metaphor C. symbolism D. repression 8. What is possible objection to the passage’s main idea does the author discuss in the last paragraph? A. Freud emphasized the unconscious, but writing results from conscious thought B. Freud claimed that art is created logically, but it really has unconscious origins C. Writers have never placed much significance on dreams D. Freud argued that literature is individual, but it is actually universal 9. The word their refer to A. writers B. works C. theories D. dreams 10. Why does the author mention multiple meaning and repetition? A. To emphasize the nonrational nature of art B. To give examples of disorder in art C. To show the similarity between art and dreams D. To give examples of divine inspiration 1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________ IX. Choose the best option to complete the reading text (2 points) When I first arrived to take up my new job, I stayed in a hotel, but I soon started looking for some permanent (1) .......... The first flat I (2) ..............over was in a basement and was obviously extremely damp in winter. Quite apart from the fact that the only (3) ............. was of brick wall. Then I had a look at a small flat in a modern (4) ............. It had a (5) ..................space and a garden, but the (6) ............... was far too high for me. I did not want to end up in a tiny place, so I answered an ad for housesharing. The house was in a quiet (7) ..........., and as soon as I saw it I fell in love with it. There was a high overgrown hedge around the front garden, and place to park car in the drive. The room to (8) ...........looked out (9) ................the back garden, and had a big bay window. Although it meant (10) ................ the kitchen and living room, I did have my own bathroom, really just a shower and washbasin crammed into what must have once been a cupboard. 1. A. home B. accommodation C. house D. landlady 2. A. passed B. viewed C. came D. looked 3. A. view B. entrance C. distance D. bathroom 4. A. tower B. department C. block D. square 5
5. A. living B. breathing C. working D. parking 6. A. lift B. roof C. area D. rent 7. A. surrounding B. neighborhood C. context D. premises 8. A. let B. myself C. pay D. lend 9. A. in B. over C. at D. for 10. A. without B. in C. sharing D. having 1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10_______ PART D: WRITING (4 points) X. Rewrite the following sentence in such a way that they mean almost the same as the ones printed before them. (1 point) 1. I don’t suppose you have change for a pound, do you? Do you happen……………………………………………………………? 2. She insisted on a full apology. Nothing but………………………………………………………………… 3. House prices have risen dramatically this year. There has ...................................................................................................... 4. Whatever the methods used to obtain the result, drugs were definitely not involved. There was no question…………………………………………………….. 5. I wasn’t a bit surprised to hear that Karen had changed her job. It came .......................................................................................................... XI. For each of the following sentences, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the origin sentence, but using the given word (1 point) 1. She does not want to be involved in the scandal caused by her husband’s remarks. (DISTANCE) She ……………………………………………………………………………… 2. It wasn’t my intention to upset you. (MEAN) I ……………………………................................................................... 3. We won’t get to the airport in less than 30 minutes. (LEAST) It will .......................................................................................................... 4. I tried the talk to Jack about the problem but he was too busy. (WORD) I tried to ........................................................................................................... 5. We cannot make any comparison with her sacrifice. (COMPARED) Nothing………………………………………………………………………….… XII. Writing an essay (2 points) It is said that increasing in the price of petrol is best way to solve growing traffic and pollution problems. What is your opinion? Write an essay discussing the matter. You should write at least 200 words ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... 6
……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. 7
……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….……………….. ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... ……………………………………………………………………………….………………... The end 8
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 12 THPT LẦN 1 TỈNH NINH BÌNH NĂM HỌC 20122013 ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Môn: Tiếng Anh – Ngày thi 09/10/2012 Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 02 trang Tổng điểm toàn bài: 20 điểm. Biểu điểm, đáp án chi tiêt cho t ́ ừng phần như sau. PART A: PHONETICS I. Identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of other words in the group (1 point) (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 point) 1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. B PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR II. Choose the correct answer to each question (2 points)) (0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points) 1. B 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. B III. Put the correct form of the verbs (1 point)(0,1 x 10 = 1.0 point) 1. do you mean 2. was 3. had been 4. would not have called 5. Had it not been 6. would not have been 7. closed 8. had been teaching 9. decided 10. is IV. Put the correct form of the words in brackets (2 points ) ( 0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points) 1. abnomalities 2. mistaken 3. imprisonment 4. disqualified 5. widespread 6. outspoken 7. wellbeing 8. reference 9. refusal 10. thoughtful. V. Fill in the gaps in the letter with a suitable preposition (2 points) (0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points) 1. of 2. in 3. for 4. about 5. for 6. after 7. of 8. on 9. of 10. of VI. Find this wrong word and then write in the space given. Some lines are correct. Indicate these lines with a tick (). Two examples are given (0) and (00). (2 points) (0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points) 1. ( ) 2. as 3. the 4. a 5. to 6. so 7. ( ) 8. make 9. themselves 10. as PART C: READING VII. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the passage with ONE suitable word ( 2 points) (0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points) 1. unwritten 2. In 3. as 4. to 5. found 6. such 7. mode 8. respond 9. society 10. passed/handed 9
VIII. Read and choose the best answer for each question (2 points)(0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points) 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. D IX Choose the best option to complete the reading text ( 2 points)(0,2 x 10 = 2.0 points) 1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. C PART D: WRITING X. Rewrite the following sentence in such a way that they mean almost the same as the ones printed before them. (1 point)(0,2 x 5 = 1.0 point) 1. Do you happen to have change for a pound? 2. Nothing but a full apology would satisfy her/was accepted 3. There has been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year. 4. There was no question of drugs being involved whatever the methods used to obtain the result. 5. It came as no surprise to me to hear that Karen had changed her job. XI. For each of the following sentences, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the origin sentence, but using the given word (1 point)(0,2 x 5 = 1.0 point) 1. She wants to distance hersefl from the scandal caused by her husband’s remarks 2. I did not mean to upset you 3. It will take us at least 30 minutes to get to the airport. 4. I tried to have a word with Jack about the problem but he was too busy. 5. Nothing can be compared with her sacrifice. XII. Writing an essay ( 2 points) 1. Content: (1,0 point) a. Providing main ideas and details as required b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively 2. Organization & Presentation: (0,25 point) a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity b. The essay is wellstructured 3. Language: (0,5 point) a. Demonstration of a variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures b. Good use of grammatical structures 4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: (0,25 point) a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes b. Intelligible handwriting Hết 10
SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 12 THPT Kỳ thi thứ nhất Năm học 2012–2013 ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIÊNG ANH ́ Ngày thi 10 /10/2012 (Thời gian 180, phút không kể thời gian phát đề) Đề thi gồm 13 câu, trong 09 trang HỌ TÊN, CHỮ KÍ CỦA SỐ PHÁCH ĐIỂM BÀI THI GIÁM KHẢO (Do CTHĐ chấm ghi) Giám khảo 1: Bằng ...................................................... số:.......................... Giám khảo 2: Bằng ...................................................... chữ:....................... (Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào các tờ đề thi) PART A: LISTENING (3 points): HƯỚNG DẪN THI NGHE HIỂU: Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh bằng tiếng Anh đã có trong từng phần nghe. I. Section 1: Question 19 Question 14: Choose the best answer to every question 1. Why would the woman prefer not to live in London? A. It’s too big B. It’s an unfriendly place B. It’s too far from Liverpool D. It makes her tired 2. What does the woman say about the people she knows in London? A. She would like to find out more about them B. She thinks they are uninteresting C. She thinks they have to work too hard D. She thinks they hardly show any interest in things 3. The man dislikes village life because A. You can’t keep any private property B. People in villages like doing nothing C. Everybody knows about your private life D. People in villages never stop talking 4. What does the man say about people in London? A. They think everyone should be the same as them B. They don’t go out much C. They try to make friends with you D. They don’t usually mind how people behave Question 59 Indicate whether the statements are True or False 5. The woman came from Liverpool 6. The woman doesn’t know many people in London 7. The man thought people in London had a very unrealistic idea about country life 8. The man said he had stolen his mother’s money to come to London 11
9. The man thought people should go out to make friends in London. 1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6_________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ II. Section 2: Question 1022 Complete the checklist of career goals with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS CAREER GOALS Goal 1 To start a career Goal 2 10. ____________ Goal 3 11. ____________ Goal 4 12. ____________ Question 1314 Complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS Applicants should hand in their application forms between (13)___________ and December. And anyone who wants to apply for the University of Oxford and Cambridge should submit their form by (14)_______________ Question 1517: Look at the note and tick if the information is correct according to what you hear. SOURCE OF INFORMATION A. Student magazines B. Rankings C. Reference books D. Government offices E. Prospectuses 15__________ 16___________ 17_________ Question 1822 Decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F) 18. The speaker mentioned students should adopt many study methods in the course, such as brainstorming sessions, field trips, seminars, tutorials and peer review. 19. British universities only offer accommodation for the refreshment 20. According to the speaker, before a student made a decision, he should confirm what kind of social life the school could offer. 21. If you go to the same university, all the courses would cost the same 22. Students may apply for financial help or scholarships in British universities. 18_______ 19__________ 20__________ 21________ 22________ III. Section 3 Question 2330: Fill in the missing information with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS GREENPEACE SAVE THE CAMPAIGN The twentieth century has brought many dangers to the world’s largest mammal. Due to improved (23)_____________ and (24)____________ ships, we might be too late to prevent whales from becoming (25)__________ There are only 2,000 (26)___________ left, and although the species is (27)_________, there is no sign that their population is growing. Only three countries (28)___________, (29)__________and (30)___________ PART B: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (5 points) 12
IV. Choose the correct answer to each question (1 point) 1. Children can be difficult to teach because of their short attention ____ A. limit B. span C. duration D. time 2. Read that sign, please. It says “English ………here.” A. speaking B. spoken C. should speak D. must speak 3. Few people can do creative work unless they are in the right _____of mind A. frame B. trend C. attitude D. tendency 4. He could provide no documentary evidence to _____ up his claim that dinosaurs had once inhabited these hills. A. back B. fill C. make D. hold 5. Because of road works, traffic is restricted to one ______ in each direction A. lane B. row C. alley D. path 6. They turned down the proposal_____ that it didn’t fulfill their requirement A. by reason B. on the grounds C. as a cause D. allowing 7. _____ the public’s concern about the local environment, this new road scheme will have to be abandoned. A. as regards B. In view of C. In the event of D. However much 8. I hadn’t been riding before and I could barely .............. the horse at first. A. get into B. get out of C. get on D. get off 9. Let’s get to the ……..of the discussion to save time. A. core B. centre C. point D. importance 10. The meeting didn’t _____ until late. A. end up B. break up C. come about D. breakthrough 1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________ V. Fill in each blank with a suitable particle or preposition (1 point) 1. What a mess! Sam’s toys haven’t been put ________ 2. I must warn you that if you have anything to say, it’ll be taken ________ and may be used in evidence against you. 3. Cheques should be made __________ to Wellington 4. I’m in no hurry. I’ll hang __________here until you are ready. 5. The little boy’s ear stuck__________ from under his school cap. 6. I am Polish ________birth, but I have French nationality. 7. Your plan doesn’t allow __________ changes in the weather. 8. How are you ___________ for work? 9. He muttered a few words and __________ that he left. 10. _________its new conductor, the orchestra has established an international reputation. 1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________ VI. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them (1 point) In countries where two or more languages are spoken, language is frequently a political and highly emotive issue. Although Canada is officially bilingual, the French – speaking province of Quebec introduced the law in 1976 which, in other measures, banned languages rather than French on commercial signs and restricted admissions to English speaking schools. In 1988, the supreme court of Canada rules that some in sections of this law were illegal. No sooner had they done so than thousands of French speakers took to the 13
street protest. Under the regime of General Franco, a Basque language spoken by about 600,000 people in Spain was forbidden. So strict was this ban that people using Basque in public could be imprisoned. Lingual suppression still goes on, but on the whole, governments today are more tolerable of their minority languages. Nowhere has this reverse of attitudes been more pronounced than in Wales. Until the twentieth century, Welsh was all along illegal, and its usage was forbidden in schools and at many places of work. Only a long campaign of protests and vandalism by Welsh speakers in the 1960s did the British government allow Welsh to become an official language. 1_______________ 2_____________ 3___________ 4_______________ 5_____________ 6___________ 7_______________ 8_____________ 9___________ 10________ VII. Supply the correct form of the words in the bracket (1 point) SCIENCE 2002 “Science 2002” is the name given to an imaginative development which aims to make (1. science) ............... and technological developments exciting, even to people who thought they were (2. interest) ..................... in the subject. As well as its main permanent (3. exhibit) ................., there is also a changing (4. select) ........................ of educational programs, such as sessions for schools and colleges, and adults (5. train) .............. course. Everyone can share the (6. excite) ............ of experiments and discovery. Even (7. experience) ................. visitors can carry out simple experiments with the help of (8. special) .............. who are always available to give them all the (9. practice) ............. advice and guidance they need. What’s more, the friendly staff are keen to provide a (10. welcome) .............. atmosphere. 1_________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6_________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________ VIII. Supply the correct form of the verbs (1 point) Millions of years ago, trees from now vanished forests (1) ______(produce) a sticky substance that slowly (2)_____(harden) into sparkling rocks. Often, the hardening sap (3)_____(drip) onto an unlucky grasshopper or beetle, (4)____(encase) it in a premature tomb. Today, a piece of amber with such content is worth thousands of dollars. However, not long ago, miners (5)______(toss) out these pieces, (6) ______(believe) them to be flawed and worthless. The preservation of creatures in amber is amazing. Scientist are able to cut the amber and (7)_____ (expose) the actual structures of a prehistoric creature’s muscles, eyes, jaws and nervous systems. Although amber supplies (8)______(decline) in some areas of the world, it is doubtful that the supplies will be depleted any time soon. New deposits always (9)____(discover), (10)_____(guarantee) a rich link to the past. 1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________ PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (7 points) IX. Read the following text and decide which word best fits each blank (3 points) 14
SPORTS PHOTOGRAPHY Sport as a spectacle and photography as a way of recording action, have developed together. At the turn of the 20th century, Edward Muybridge was experimenting with photographs of movement. His pictures of a runner (1)_____ in every history of photography. Another milestone was when the scientist/photographer Harold Edgerton (2)_____ the limits of photographic technology with his study of a (3)_____ of milk hitting the surface o of a dish of milk. Another advance was the development of miniature cameras in the late 1920s which made it possible for sports photographers to (4)_____ their cumbersome cameras behind. The significance of television as a transmitter of sport has (5)_____ the prospects of still photographers. All those people who watch a sports event on TVG, with all its movement and action, (6)_____ the still image as a reminder of the game. The (7)_____majority of people do not actually (8)_____ sports events, but see them through the eyes of the media. And when they look at sports photography, they look not so much for a (9)____of the event as for emotions and relationships with which they can (10)_____. Looking back, we can see how (11)_____ sports photography has changed. (12)_____ sports photographers were as interested in the stories behind the sport as in the sport itself. Contemporary sports photography (13)_____the glamour of sport, the color and the action. But the best sports photographers today still do more than (14)_____tell the story of the event. They (15)_____in a single dramatic moment the real emotions of the participants. 1. A. exhibit B. show C. demonstrate D. feature 2. A. extended B. enlarged C. prolonged D. spread 3. A. splash B. drip C. dash D. drop 4. A. put B. leave C. lay D. keep 5. A. assisted B. aided C. benefited D. improved 6. A. choose B. value C. praise D. cheer 7. A. high B. wide C. vast D. main 8. A. attend B. visit C. follow D. meet 9. A. preservation B. store C. record D. mark 10. A. identify B. share C. unite D. join 11. A. highly B. radically C. extremely D. severely 12. A. Early B. First C. Initial D. Primary 13. A. outlines B. signals C. emphasizes D. forms 14. A. alone B. simply C. singly D. only 15. A. seize B. grasp C. capture D. secure 1_______ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6_______ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________ 11_______ 12__________ 13__________ 14________ 15________ X. Read and choose the best answer for the question (2 points) Biographies of Mohammed are both numerous and unreliable. Non was written in his lifetime, and all are plagued by legends and embellishments. The best known ones are, based on the Hadiths, or “traditions”, which are dubious historical value. The Koran may be the only trustworthy account of the major event of his life. Mohammed, “the praised One”, founder and prophet of Islam, was born in Mecca in the years 570. He became an orphan at the age of six and was taken into the care of his uncle, AbuTalib. The tribe of Fihr, to which Mohammed’s family belonged, was then on the rise. (1)They had become the keepers and guardians of the Kaaba in Mecca, a site of 15
preIslamic Arab worship (and now the holiest place in Islam). Their preeminence made it easier for Mohammed to accomplish his later religious and political conquest. (2) (3) Mohammed’s early life was spent as a shepherd and caravan attendant. He is thought to have been quiet man, much given to fasting and prayer. At the age 25 he married a rich, older widow, Khadeejah.(4) The frequent commercial journey he made after his marriage allowed him to learn the rudiments of Judaism and Christianity. When Mohammed was forty years old, he received what he believed to be a call from the Angel Gabriel, inaugurating his career as a phrophet of Allah and the apostle of Arabia. His first converts included his wife and daughter, his adopted son Ali, and his slave Zayd. Mohammed’s attacks on traditional Arab belief provoked ourage and persecution in Mecca, which drove him to the city of Medina in 622. There he was welcomed as God’s prophet, and found a growing number of supporters. With their help he conquered several Arab, Jewish and Christian tribes, of marched triumphantly back to Mecca in 630, destroyed the idols, and united all the tribes under one religion. He made his last pilgrimage to Mecca with 40,000 followers in 632 and died soon afterward of a fever at the age of 63. After Mohammed’s death, his successors, the caliphs, aspired to make Islam a world religion through the conquest of foreign lands. In less than a century they succeeded in taking Palestine, Syria, Mesopotania, Egypt, North Africa, and southern Spain. In 732 the Muslim armies were at last defeated at Tours, where their western conquests ended. But they went on to conquer Oersia, Afghanistan, and part of India. When the Mongols and Turks conquered the Muslims in the thirteenth century, they adopted Islam as their own religion. The succession of the first three caliphs was the source of a schism within the faith that persists today. The Sunni, or Orthodox, supported the legitimacy of Abu Bakr, Omar, and Uthman; the Shiah, or Schismatics, upheld the divine right of Mohammed’s son Ali to be his father’s successor. 1. What is the topic of the passage? A. The founding and spread of Islam C. the basis of Islamic belief B. The tribe of Mohammed D. Islam after Mohammed 2. According to the passage, what is the problem with most accounts of Mohammed’s life? A. They were written by nonMuslims B. They do not describe his early life C. They contain some false information D. They have been destroyed 3. The word which refers to A. Tribe B. family C. uncle D. Mohammed 4. Which is the best place for the following sentence? “Of the six children, only their daughter Fatima survived into adulthood” A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D(4) 5. The word inaugurating is closest in meaning to A. Improving B. confirming C. beginning D. expanding 6. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the underlined sentence in the passage? A. Mohammed’s supports in Mecca asked him to go to Media to fight against attacks on Arab belief. B. People in Mecca who became angry about Mohammed’s persecution were forced to go to Media. 16
C. Mohammed’s traditional Arab belief led to great anger against Mohammed in Mecca and later in Medina D. Mohammed had to go to Medina after angering people in Mecca with his criticism of older Arab belief. 7. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that A. Mohammed’s belief did not differ much from traditional Arab beliefs B. Before Mohammed, Arabs did not all practice the same religion C. The Arabs had no religion before Mohammed D. Media was a more religious city than Mecca 8. According to the reading, what helped Mohammed in his conquests? A. The power of his tribe B. The support of the caliphs C. His knowledge of Christianity and Judaism D. The conversation of his wife, daughter and son 9. Which of the following is true? A. The Muslim armies won their final victory at Tours B. The Mongols converted to Islam after being conquered by the Muslims C. The Turks and Mongols became Muslims after their defeat of the Muslim armies. D. Because of their defeat in 73, the Muslim armies lost most of the territory they had conquered. 10. The Schismatic wanted A. To make Islam a world religion B. To choose the caliphs themselves C. To let Ali take Mohammed’s place as leader D. To divide Muslims into various sects XI. Read the text and fill in each numbered blank with ONE word. (2 points) British television is the big success story of postwar years. Little (1) …..than a limited experiment before the war, it blossomed in (2)………. years following 1945. (3) …..1955, commercial television began. Today, 90 per cent of population have television in (4) ………homes. In 1960, a committee of enquiry was (5)………up, (6)…………..the chairmanship of Sir Harry Pilkington, to investigate the working of broadcasting. The Pilkington Report, published in 1962, had (7)………to say: “Television has been (8)……….a mirror of society, but the metaphor, (9) ………….striking, wholly misses the major issue of the responsibility (10)……….the broadcasting authorities, what is the (11) ……to reflect? It is to reflect the best or the worst (12)…………us? One cannot escape the question by saying that it must do both one must ask then (13) ……….. it is to present the best and the worst with complete indifference and (14) …….comment. Television (15)……..not, and cannot, merely reflect the moral standards of society. It must affect (16)……….either by changing or by reinforcing them”. All broadcasting, and television (17)……….., must be ready and anxious to experiment, to show (18)………..new and unusual, to give a hearing (19)………… dissent. Here, broadcasting must be worst willing to make mistakes; for if it does not, it will (20) ……….no discoveries. 1________ 2__________ 3__________ 4________ 5________ 6________ 7__________ 8__________ 9________ 10________ 17
11________ 12__________ 13__________ 14________ 15________ 16________ 17__________ 18__________ 19________ 20________ PART D: WRITING ( 5 points) XII. Writing task 1 (1 point) Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the given word. Do not change the word given. You must use between THREE AND EIGHT WORDS; including the word given Example Do you mind if I watch you while you paint? (OBJECTION) Do you have any objection while you pain? 1. It is extremely important that company rules are observed utmost Observation ____________________ ________________________importance. 2. Sooner or later, Michael will have to ___ fact that he’s not going to win another major race. terms Sooner or later, Michael will have to _______________fact that he’s not going to win another major race. 3. The film didn’t live up to our expectations, despite all the publicity. short The film ________________________our expectations, despite all the publicity 4. Although the Government has introduced new legislation, the transport crisis is growing worse brought Although new legislation____________________, the transport crisis is growing worse. 5. The plans for the new bypass were not popular with many people. favour Many people were __________________the new bypass XIII. Writing task 2 (4 points) The pie chart shows the main reasons why agricultural land become less productive. The table shows how these causes affected three regions of the world during 1990s. Summaries the information by selecting and reporting the main features and makes comparison where relevant. Causes of worldwide land degradation 18
Causes of land degradation by regions Region % land degraded by ….. Deforestation Over cultivation Overgrazing Total land degraded North 0,2 3,3 1,5 5% America Europe 9,8 7,7 5,5 23% Oceania* 1,7 0 11,3 13% *A large group of islands in the South Pacific including Australia and New Zealand ………………………………………………………………………………. ………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………… ………………………………………………………………………………. ………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………… 19
………………………………………………………………………………. ………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………… ………………………………………………………………………………. ………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………… ………………………………………………………………………………. ………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………… ………………………………………………………………………………. ………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………… ………………………………………………………………………………. ………………….. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… ………………………………………………………………………………………………… 20