Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Trần Hưng Đạo, Kon Tum

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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TP KON TUM TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ 1- NĂM HỌC: 2023-2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT Mức độ nhận thức Tổng TT Kĩ năng Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Thời Thời Thời Thời Thời Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ (%)/ gian gian gian gian gian (%)/câu (%)/câu (%)/câu (%)/câu câu (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) 12,5 6 10 6 25 1 LISTENING 12 5 câu 5 câu 10 câu 12,5 5 7,5 5 5 3 25 13 2 LANGUAGE 5 câu 3 câu 2 câu 10 câu 10 5 10 9 5 4 25 18 3 READING 4 câu 4 câu 2 câu 10 câu 5 4 10 8 10 5 25 17 4 WRITING 2 câu 4 câu a para 6 câu + 1 para 100% 40% 30% 20 % 10% Tổng 20 20 15 5 36 câu + 1 60 16 câu 12 câu 8 câu 1 para para Tỉ lệ % 40.00 30 20 10 100 Tỉ lệ chung (%) 70.00 30 100 Số câu: Nhận biết 16 Thông hiểu 12 Vận dụng 8 Vận dụng cao :1 paragraph
BẢNG MÔ TẢ KĨ THUẬT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ - NĂM HỌC: 2023-2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 - THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức T Nhận Thông Vận Vận dụng Tổng Số CH Kĩ năng Đơn vị kiến thức/kỹ năng T biết hiểu dụng cao TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL I. LISTENING Nghe (học liệu) 3 3 1. Nghe 1 đoạn hội thoại ngắn và 2 2 chọn T or F (5 câu-1.25 điểm) với chủ điểm: Healthy living 2. Học sinh nghe 1 đoạn hội thoại và 2 2 chọn A,B hoặc C (5 câu-1.25 điểm); 3 3 với chủ điểm: Hobbies II. LANGUAGE Pronunciation 2 2 - Sounds /ə/ and /ɜ: / - sounds /t/, /d/ and /ɪd/ Vocabulary 2 1 3 Từ vựng đã học theo chủ đề. - Hobbies (hobbies) - Healthy living (sunburn) - Community service (volunteer) 2 2 Grammar • Multiple choice (3 câu) + 1 1 Put the correct form of the verb (2 câu) 2 2 - Present simple - Past simple - Simple sentences
III READING 1. Cloze test 2 2 . Hiểu được bài đọc có độ dài khoảng 100-120 từ về chủ điểm: - Community service ( Chọn đáp án 2 2 đúng để hoàn thành đoạn văn) 1 1 2. Reading comprehension 2 2 Hiểu được nội dung chính và nội dung chi tiết đoạn văn bản có độ dài 2 khoảng 120-150 từ, đọc và chọn đáp 2 án đúng với chủ điểm: Healthy living 1 1 IV WRITING Sentence building . 2 2 Hoàn thành câu dùng từ cho trước Sentence transformation 4 4 Viết câu tương đương Write a paragraph Viết 1 đoạn văn sử dụng câu hỏi gợi 1 para 1 para ý với chủ đề: Community service 14 2 10 2 4 4 28 8 + 1 para Tổng (70%) (30%) 36 câu + 1 Tổng toàn bài para
PHÒNG GD-ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ I TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề 701 Họ và tên: ............................................................................ Lớp: ............. (Đề có 4 trang) Scores Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2.5 marks) Part I. Listen to a text about how to keep fit. Choose True or False for the following statements. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 marks) Statements True False Question 1. Eating different kinds of food is good for our health . Question 2. Choosing healthy drinks such as water, milk and fruit juice. Question 3. Soft drinks are good for you because they have lots of added sugar. Question 4. Using your phones, tablets, computers or watching TV too much keep your body active. Question 5. Playing football, badminton, or any kinds of sports will bring you good health. Part II. Listen to the conversation between Tom and Lan. Circle the correct answer A, B, or C. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 marks) Question 6. What time does Lan often get up? A. 5.30 a.m B. 6.15 a.m C. 6.30 a.m Question 7. Why does Tom go to school early today? A. Because he has to watch a film. B. Because he has to do morning exercise. C. Because his father travels on business. Question 8. What is Lan’s opinion about Tom’s hobby? A. It’s not good for their health B. It teaches them how to be brave in dangerous situations. C. It helps them learn more about different cultures. Question 9. What does Tom need to do to feel better? A. He needs to change his lifestyle for more physical activities. B. He needs to learn more about different cultures. C. He needs to select some films about what to do when there is a fire. Question 10. What does Lan think about keeping fit? A. She thinks it can help to react better. B. She thinks it can help to study better. C. She thinks it can help to behave better. Page 1/21
II. USE OF LANGUAGE (2.5 marks) Part 1: Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D (2,0 marks) Question 11. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. cleaned B. volunteered C. cooked D. enjoyed Question 12. You can use this to stick these pieces of color paper to decorate your dollhouse. A. model B. head C. glue D. nail Question 13. Choose the correct word that is closet in meaning to the underlined word in this sentence. You should join the volunteer activities in your community. A. take part in B. making C. participating D. taking in Question 14. Look at those students. They are picking used bottles to help save the environment. A. up B. on C. in D. over Question 15. - What is tofu? – It’s a from soybeans.. A. product B. producer C. production D. produce Question 16. Some hobbies can help students learn to be with their work. A. funny B. patient C. popular D. valuable Question 17. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. purple B. culture C. album D. future Question 18. Anna: Mark : You should eat less sweetened food. A. My hair is dry. B. I always fell sleepy C. I have chapped lips. D. I’m putting on weight. Part 2: Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (0,5mark) Question 19. Trung never (watch) TV before finishing all his homework. Question 20. When I was in Nha Trang last month, I (collect) some beautiful seashells. III. READING (2.5 marks) Part 1: Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each of the gaps to complete the following text. (1,25 marks) My school has a number of volunteer activities every summer. The activities include donating books to village children, (21) ______ kids in the neighborhood, teaching English to primary students, reading books or cooking food for the (22) ______our school started this programme five years ago. Every student can join one or two activities. In the beginning, we thought about (23) we should join in these activities. We then thought about what activities we wanted to do. Those who like reading could choose to collect and donate (24) ______Those who are good at English could tutor primary students. Finally, we signed up for the activities we chose. Our teachers often encourage us to stay committed. They also help us when we need it. We have a lot of fun and learn many things from (25) ______the activities. Question 21. A. tutor B. tutored C. is tutoring D. tutoring Question 22. A. workers B. needy C. reader D. young Question 23. A. why B. where C. what D. when Question 24. A. clothes B. comics C. vegetables D. books Question 25. A. doing B. working C. playing D. making Page 2/21
Part 2: Read the passage. Read the passage. Circle A, B, C or D to answer each question or complete each sentence. (1,25 marks) A FOUR-STEP PLAN FOR HEALTHY LIVING Step 1: Try to eat a wide variety of different foods. You can do this easily by increasing the amount of fruit, vegetables, whole grains and freshly - squeezed juice in your diet. These foods will protect you against disease and ageing. Step 2: Reduce the quantity of sugary and high-fat food in your diet. Because this kind of food tastes so good, it’s easy to eat too much of it. Remember, for long-lasting benefits, you should make these changes permanent. Step 3: Do more exercise. Exercise needn’t be boring. Challenge yourself to a five- kilometer run or to learn an unusual sport. Don’t worry if you can’t afford to join a gym- there are plenty of low-cost options, such as jogging, and you’ll feel relaxed afterwards. Step 4: Be kind to yourself! Don’t get too tired and make sure you have enough sleep. This is the key to a healthy, stress-free life. Question 26. What does the writer want to do in the text? A. Complain of his lifestyle. B. Challenge himself to have a good health. C. Describe his living condition. D. Suggest some ways to live healthily. Question 27. From the text, the role of vegetable and fruit is . A. helping human avoid getting old. B. helping people more beautiful C. nothing D. making human become older Question 28. Sugary and fat food . A. gives us many benefits. B. should be restricted for a long time. C. tastes very awful. D. should not be used in your diet. Question 29. Exercise . A. is not only joining a gym. B. will cost us a lot of money C. is vey boring. D. makes you feel exhausted. Question 30. People should try to avoid . A. stressful life. B. fruit juice. C. enough sleep D. exercise. IV. WRITING (2,5 marks) Part 1: Use the words and phrases below to make sentences ( 0,5 mark). Question 31. 1. You/ should/ drink/ lot/ water/ every day. → . Question 32. What time/ the volunteers/ come / the flooded town/ last night? → ? Part 2: For each question, complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. Use the word in brackets and do not change it. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. (1,0 mark) Question 33. My father often collects stamps in his free time. → My father’s is collecting stamps. (HOBBY) Question 34. The bookshop is opposite the library. → a bookshop opposite the library. (THERE) Question 35. We donate these clothes to children who have no home. Page 3/21
→We give these clothes . (HOMELESS) Question 36. I like my bedroom most. →My bedroom room. (FAVOURITE) Part 3: Write a description of your community activities 60-80 words). You can use the following questions as cues. (1,0 mark) What are your community activities? How often do you take part in these activities? Why do you join these activities? What are the benefits of these activities? ------ THE END ------ Page 4/21
PHÒNG GD-ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ I TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề 702 Họ và tên: ............................................................................ Lớp: ............ (Đề có 04 trang) Scores Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2.5 marks) Part I. Listen to a text about how to keep fit. Choose True or False for the following statements. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 marks) Statements True False Question 1. Eating different kinds of food is good for our health . Question 2. Choosing healthy drinks such as water, milk and fruit juice. Question 3. Soft drinks are good for you because they have lots of added sugar. Question 4. Using your phones, tablets, computers or watching TV too much keep your body active. Question 5. Playing football, badminton, or any kinds of sports will bring you good health. Part II. Listen to the conversation between Tom and Lan. Circle the correct answer A, B, or C. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 marks) Question 6. What time does Lan often get up? A. 6.15 a.m B. 5.30 a.m C. 6.30 a.m Question 7. Why does Tom go to school early today? A. Because he has to watch a film. B. Because he has to do morning exercise. C. Because his father travels on business. Question 8. What is Lan’s opinion about Tom’s hobby? A. It teaches them how to be brave in dangerous situations. B. It’s not good for their health C. It helps them learn more about different cultures. Question 9. What does Tom need to do to feel better? A. He needs to learn more about different cultures. B. He needs to select some films about what to do when there is a fire. C. He needs to change his lifestyle for more physical activities. Question 10. What does Lan think about keeping fit? A. She thinks it can help to react better. B. She thinks it can help to study better. C. She thinks it can help to behave better. Page 5/21
II. USE OF LANGUAGE (2.5 marks) Part 1: Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D (2,0 marks) Question 11. Some hobbies can help students learn to be with their work. A. funny B. valuable C. popular D. patient Question 12. You can use this to stick these pieces of color paper to decorate your dollhouse. A. glue B. nail C. model D. head Question 13. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. cleaned B. volunteered C. enjoyed D. cooked Question 14. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. future B. album C. purple D. culture Question 15. Look at those students. They are picking used bottles to help save the environment. A. in B. over C. on D. up Question 16. - What is tofu? – It’s a from soybeans.. A. production B. producer C. produce D. product Question 17. Choose the correct word that is closet in meaning to the underlined word in this sentence. You should join the volunteer activities in your community. A. taking in B. making C. take part in D. participating Question 18. - Anna: . - Mark : You should eat less sweetened food. A. I’m putting on weight. B. I have chapped lips. C. I always fell sleepy D. My hair is dry. Part 2: Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (0,5mark) Question 19. Trung never (watch) TV before finishing all his homework. Question 20. When I was in Nha Trang last month, I (collect) some beautiful seashells. III. READING (2.5 marks) Part 1: Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each of the gaps to complete the following text. (1,25 marks) My school has a number of volunteer activities every summer. The activities include donating books to village children, (21) ______ kids in the neighborhood, teaching English to primary students, reading books or cooking food for the (22) ______our school started this programme five years ago. Every student can join one or two activities. In the beginning, we thought about (23) we should join in these activities. We then thought about what activities we wanted to do. Those who like reading could choose to collect and donate (24) ______Those who are good at English could tutor primary students. Finally, we signed up for the activities we chose. Our teachers often encourage us to stay committed. They also help us when we need it. We have a lot of fun and learn many things from (25) ______the activities. Question 21. A. is tutoring B. tutored C. tutor D. tutoring Question 22. A. workers B. young C. reader D. needy Question 23. A. where B. what C. when D. why Question 24. A. books B. comics C. vegetables D. clothes Question 25. A. making B. working C. doing D. playing Page 6/21
Part 2: Read the passage. Read the passage. Circle A, B, C or D to answer each question or complete each sentence. (1,25 marks) A FOUR-STEP PLAN FOR HEALTHY LIVING Step 1: Try to eat a wide variety of different foods. You can do this easily by increasing the amount of fruit, vegetables, whole grains and freshly - squeezed juice in your diet. These foods will protect you against disease and ageing. Step 2: Reduce the quantity of sugary and high-fat food in your diet. Because this kind of food tastes so good, it’s easy to eat too much of it. Remember, for long-lasting benefits, you should make these changes permanent. Step 3: Do more exercise. Exercise needn’t be boring. Challenge yourself to a five- kilometer run or to learn an unusual sport. Don’t worry if you can’t afford to join a gym- there are plenty of low-cost options, such as jogging, and you’ll feel relaxed afterwards. Step 4: Be kind to yourself! Don’t get too tired and make sure you have enough sleep. This is the key to a healthy, stress-free life. Question 26. What does the writer want to do in the text? A. Suggest some ways to live healthily. B. Challenge himself to have a good health. C. Complain of his lifestyle. D. Describe his living condition. Question 27. From the text, the role of vegetable and fruit is . A. making human become older B. helping people more beautiful C. helping human avoid getting old. D. nothing Question 28. Sugary and fat food . A. should not be used in your diet. B. gives us many benefits. C. tastes very awful. D. should be restricted for a long time. Question 29. Exercise . A. will cost us a lot of money B. makes you feel exhausted. C. is not only joining a gym. D. is vey boring. Question 30. People should try to avoid . A. stressful life. B. exercise. C. enough sleep D. fruit juice. IV. WRITING (2,5 marks) Part 1: Use the words and phrases below to make sentences ( 0,5 mark). Question 31. 1. You/ should/ drink/ lot/ water/ every day. → . Question 32. What time/ the volunteers/ come / the flooded town/ last night? → ? Part 2: For each question, complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. Use the word in brackets and do not change it. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. (1,0 mark) Question 33. My father often collects stamps in his free time. → My father’s is collecting stamps. (HOBBY) Question 34. The bookshop is opposite the library. → a bookshop opposite the library. (THERE) Question 35. We donate these clothes to children who have no home. Page 7/21
→We give these clothes . (HOMELESS) Question 36. I like my bedroom most. →My bedroom room. (FAVOURITE) Part 3: Write a description of your community activities 60-80 words). You can use the following questions as cues. (1,0 mark) What are your community activities? How often do you take part in these activities? Why do you join these activities? What are the benefits of these activities? ------ THE END ------ Page 8/21
PHÒNG GD-ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ I TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề 703 Họ và tên: ............................................................................ Lớp: ............. (Đề có 04 trang) Scores Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2.5 marks) Part I. Listen to a text about how to keep fit. Choose True or False for the following statements. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 marks) Statements True False Question 1. Eating different kinds of food is good for our health . Question 2. Choosing healthy drinks such as water, milk and fruit juice. Question 3. Soft drinks are good for you because they have lots of added sugar. Question 4. Using your phones, tablets, computers or watching TV too much keep your body active. Question 5. Playing football, badminton, or any kinds of sports will bring you good health. Part II. Listen to the conversation between Tom and Lan. Circle the correct answer A, B, or C. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 marks) Question 6. What time does Lan often get up? A. 5.30 a.m B. 6.30 a.m C. 6.15 a.m Question 7. Why does Tom go to school early today? A. Because his father travels on business. B. Because he has to watch a film. C. Because he has to do morning exercise. Question 8. What is Lan’s opinion about Tom’s hobby? A. It helps them learn more about different cultures. B. It teaches them how to be brave in dangerous situations. C. It’s not good for their health Question 9. What does Tom need to do to feel better? A. He needs to select some films about what to do when there is a fire. B. He needs to learn more about different cultures. C. He needs to change his lifestyle for more physical activities. Question 10. What does Lan think about keeping fit? A. She thinks it can help to study better. B. She thinks it can help to behave better. C. She thinks it can help to react better. Page 9/21
II. USE OF LANGUAGE (2.5 marks) Part 1: Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D (2,0 marks) Question 11. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. culture B. future C. purple D. album Question 12. - What is tofu? – It’s a from soybeans.. A. producer B. production C. product D. produce Question 13. Choose the correct word that is closet in meaning to the underlined word in this sentence. You should join the volunteer activities in your community. A. taking in B. take part in C. participating D. making Question 14. Look at those students. They are picking used bottles to help save the environment. A. in B. on C. over D. up Question 15. You can use this to stick these pieces of color paper to decorate your dollhouse. A. glue B. head C. model D. nail Question 16. Some hobbies can help students learn to be with their work. A. funny B. popular C. patient D. valuable Question 17. Anna: . Mark : You should eat less sweetened food. A. I’m putting on weight. B. My hair is dry. C. I always fell sleepy D. I have chapped lips. Question 18. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. cleaned B. enjoyed C. volunteered D. cooked Part 2: Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (0,5mark) Question 19. Trung never (watch) TV before finishing all his homework. Question 20. When I was in Nha Trang last month, I (collect) some beautiful seashells. III. READING (2.5 marks) Part 1: Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each of the gaps to complete the following text. (1,25 marks) My school has a number of volunteer activities every summer. The activities include donating books to village children, (21) ______ kids in the neighborhood, teaching English to primary students, reading books or cooking food for the (22) ______our school staled this programme five years ago. Every student can join one or two activities. In the beginning, we thought about (23) ______we should join in these activities. We then thought about what activities we wanted to do. Those who like reading could choose to collect and donate (24) ______Those who are good at English could tutor primary students. Finally, we signed up for the activities we chose. Our teachers often encourage us to stay committed. They also help us when we need it. We have a lot of fun and learn many things from (25) the activities. Question 21. A. tutor B. tutored C. is tutoring D. tutoring Question 22. A. young B. needy C. workers D. reader Question 23. A. where B. why C. when D. what Question 24. A. comics B. vegetables C. books D. clothes Question 25. A. working B. making C. doing D. playing Page 10/21
Part 2: Read the passage. Read the passage. Circle A, B, C or D to answer each question or complete each sentence. (1,25 marks) A FOUR-STEP PLAN FOR HEALTHY LIVING Step 1: Try to eat a wide variety of different foods. You can do this easily by increasing the amount of fruit, vegetables, whole grains and freshly - squeezed juice in your diet. These foods will protect you against disease and ageing. Step 2: Reduce the quantity of sugary and high-fat food in your diet. Because this kind of food tastes so good, it’s easy to eat too much of it. Remember, for long-lasting benefits, you should make these changes permanent. Step 3: Do more exercise. Exercise needn’t be boring. Challenge yourself to a five- kilometer run or to learn an unusual sport. Don’t worry if you can’t afford to join a gym- there are plenty of low-cost options, such as jogging, and you’ll feel relaxed afterwards. Step 4: Be kind to yourself! Don’t get too tired and make sure you have enough sleep. This is the key to a healthy, stress-free life. Question 26. What does the writer want to do in the text? A. Suggest some ways to live healthily. B. Challenge himself to have a good health. C. Describe his living condition. D. Complain of his lifestyle. Question 27. From the text, the role of vegetable and fruit is . A. helping human avoid getting old. B. nothing C. making human become older D. helping people more beautiful Question 28. Sugary and fat food . A. gives us many benefits. B. should not be used in your diet. C. should be restricted for a long time. D. tastes very awful. Question 29. Exercise . A. will cost us a lot of money B. is vey boring. C. makes you feel exhausted. D. is not only joining a gym. Question 30. People should try to avoid . A. enough sleep B. fruit juice. C. stressful life. D. exercise. IV. WRITING (2,5 marks) Part 1: Use the words and phrases below to make sentences ( 0,5 mark). Question 31. 1. You/ should/ drink/ lot/ water/ every day. → . Question 32. What time/ the volunteers/ come / the flooded town/ last night? → ? Part 2: For each question, complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. Use the word in brackets and do not change it. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. (1,0 mark) Question 33. My father often collects stamps in his free time. → My father’s is collecting stamps. (HOBBY) Question 34. The bookshop is opposite the library. → a bookshop opposite the library. (THERE) Question 35. We donate these clothes to children who have no home. Page 11/21
→We give these clothes . (HOMELESS) Question 36. I like my bedroom most. →My bedroom room. (FAVOURITE) Part 3: Write a description of your community activities 60-80 words). You can use the following questions as cues. (1,0 mark) What are your community activities? How often do you take part in these activities? Why do you join these activities? What are the benefits of these activities? ------ THE END ------ Page 12/21
PHÒNG GD-ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ I TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề 704 Họ và tên: ............................................................................ Lớp: ............. (Đề có 04 trang) Scores Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2.5 marks) Part I. Listen to a text about how to keep fit. Choose True or False for the following statements. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 marks) Statements True False Question 1. Eating different kinds of food is good for our health . Question 2. Choosing healthy drinks such as water, milk and fruit juice. Question 3. Soft drinks are good for you because they have lots of added sugar. Question 4. Using your phones, tablets, computers or watching TV too much keep your body active. Question 5. Playing football, badminton, or any kinds of sports will bring you good health. Part II. Listen to the conversation between Tom and Lan. Circle the correct answer A, B, or C. You will listen TWICE. (1,25 marks) Question 6. What time does Lan often get up? A. 5.30 a.m B. 6.30 a.m C. 6.15 a.m Question 7. Why does Tom go to school early today? A. Because he has to watch a film. B. Because his father travels on business. C. Because he has to do morning exercise. Question 8. What is Lan’s opinion about Tom’s hobby? A. It helps them learn more about different cultures. B. It teaches them how to be brave in dangerous situations. C. It’s not good for their health Question 9. What does Tom need to do to feel better? A. He needs to select some films about what to do when there is a fire. B. He needs to learn more about different cultures. C. He needs to change his lifestyle for more physical activities. Question 10. What does Lan think about keeping fit? A. She thinks it can help to react better. B. She thinks it can help to behave better. Page 13/21
C. She thinks it can help to study better. II. USE OF LANGUAGE (2.5 marks) Part 1: Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D (2,0 marks) Question 11. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. volunteered B. cleaned C. enjoyed D. cooked Question 12. Anna: . Mark : You should eat less sweetened food. A. I always fell sleepy B. My hair is dry. C. I have chapped lips. D. I’m putting on weight. Question 13. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. future B. purple C. album D. culture Question 14. Choose the correct word that is closet in meaning to the underlined word in this sentence. You should join the volunteer activities in your community. A. taking in B. take part in C. participating D. making Question 15. Look at those students. They are picking used bottles to help save the environment. A. over B. on C. up D. in Question 16. - What is tofu? – It’s a from soybeans.. A. producer B. production C. product D. produce Question 17. Some hobbies can help students learn to be with their work. A. valuable B. popular C. funny D. patient Question 18. You can use this to stick these pieces of color paper to decorate your dollhouse. A. glue B. nail C. model D. head Part 2: Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (0,5mark) Question 19. Trung never (watch) TV before finishing all his homework. Question 20. When I was in Nha Trang last month, I (collect) some beautiful seashells. III. READING (2.5 marks) Part 1: Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each of the gaps to complete the following text. (1,25 marks) My school has a number of volunteer activities every summer. The activities include donating books to village children, (21) ______ kids in the neighborhood, teaching English to primary students, reading books or cooking food for the (22) ______our school staled this programme five years ago. Every student can join one or two activities. In the beginning, we thought about (23) _ we should join in these activities. We then thought about what activities we wanted to do. Those who like reading could choose to collect and donate (24) ______Those who are good at English could tutor primary students. Finally, we signed up for the activities we chose. Our teachers often encourage us to stay committed. They also help us when we need it. We have a lot of fun and learn many things from (25) ______the activities. Question 21. A. is tutoring B. tutored C. tutor D. tutoring Question 22. A. workers B. young C. needy D. reader Question 23. A. when B. why C. where D. what Question 24. A. vegetables B. books C. clothes D. comics Question 25. A. making B. working C. playing D. doing Page 14/21
Part 2: Read the passage. Read the passage. Circle A, B, C or D to answer each question or complete each sentence. (1,25 marks) A FOUR-STEP PLAN FOR HEALTHY LIVING Step 1: Try to eat a wide variety of different foods. You can do this easily by increasing the amount of fruit, vegetables, whole grains and freshly - squeezed juice in your diet. These foods will protect you against disease and ageing. Step 2: Reduce the quantity of sugary and high-fat food in your diet. Because this kind of food tastes so good, it’s easy to eat too much of it. Remember, for long-lasting benefits, you should make these changes permanent. Step 3: Do more exercise. Exercise needn’t be boring. Challenge yourself to a five- kilometer run or to learn an unusual sport. Don’t worry if you can’t afford to join a gym- there are plenty of low-cost options, such as jogging, and you’ll feel relaxed afterwards. Step 4: Be kind to yourself! Don’t get too tired and make sure you have enough sleep. This is the key to a healthy, stress-free life. Question 26. What does the writer want to do in the text? A. Describe his living condition. B. Complain of his lifestyle. C. Suggest some ways to live healthily. D. Challenge himself to have a good health. Question 27. From the text, the role of vegetable and fruit is . A. helping people more beautiful B. making human become older C. helping human avoid getting old. D. nothing Question 28. Sugary and fat food . A. should not be used in your diet. B. tastes very awful. C. should be restricted for a long time. D. gives us many benefits. Question 29. Exercise . A. makes you feel exhausted. B. will cost us a lot of money C. is not only joining a gym. D. is vey boring. Question 30. People should try to avoid . A. enough sleep B. exercise. C. fruit juice. D. stressful life. IV. WRITING (2,5 marks) Part 1: Use the words and phrases below to make sentences ( 0,5 mark). Question 31. 1. You/ should/ drink/ lot/ water/ every day. → . Question 32. What time/ the volunteers/ come / the flooded town/ last night? → ? Part 2: For each question, complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. Use the word in brackets and do not change it. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. (1,0 mark) Question 33. My father often collects stamps in his free time. → My father’s is collecting stamps. (HOBBY) Question 34. The bookshop is opposite the library. → a bookshop opposite the library. (THERE) Page 15/21
Question 35. We donate these clothes to children who have no home. →We give these clothes . (HOMELESS) Question 36. I like my bedroom most. →My bedroom room. (FAVOURITE) Part 3: Write a description of your community activities 60-80 words). You can use the following questions as cues. (1,0 mark) What are your community activities? How often do you take part in these activities? Why do you join these activities? What are the benefits of these activities? ------ THE END ------ Page 16/21
PHÒNG GD & ĐT TP KON TUM HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ I TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC: 2023-2024 Môn: Tiếng Anh 7 ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM I. HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG: Tổng cộng 10 điểm A. Listening: 2,5 điểm 2,5 điểm = 10 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.25 điểm B. Language: 2,0 điểm 2,5 điểm = 10 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.25 điểm C. Reading: 2,0 điểm 2,5 điểm = 10 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu chọn đúng từ được 0.25 điểm D. Writing: 2,5 điểm 1,5 điểm = 6 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu chọn đúng từ được 0.25 điểm 1 điểm = a paragraph II. ĐÁP ÁN 1. PHẦN: LISTENING – LANGUAGE – READING (CÂU 1→30) MÃ ĐỀ 701 1T 2T 3F 4F 5T 6A 7C 8C 9A 10B 19. 20. 11C 12C 13A 14A 15A 16B 17A 18D watches collected 21D 22B 23A 24D 25A 26D 27A 28D 29A 30A MÃ ĐỀ 702 1T 2T 3F 4F 5T 6B 7C 8C 9C 10B 19. 20. 11D 12A 13D 14C 15D 16D 17C 18A watches collected 21D 22D 23D 24A 25C 26A 27C 28A 29C 30A MÃ ĐỀ 703 Page 17/21