Tham khảo “Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Quang Trung, Hội An” để giúp các em làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi, đồng thời ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức căn bản trong chương trình học. Tham gia giải đề thi để ôn tập và chuẩn bị kiến thức và kỹ năng thật tốt cho kì thi sắp diễn ra nhé!
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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Quang Trung, Hội An
- UỶ BAN NHÂN DÂN TP HỘI AN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ I
Trường TH và THCS QUANG TRUNG NĂM HỌC: 2024- 2025
Họ và tên: ……………………….……... MÔN: Anh- LỚP 6
Lớp: …………………………….……… Thời gian: 60 phút(Không kể thời gian giao
đề )
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Chữ kí giám thị 1:
Chữ kí giám thị 2:
Điểm: Nhận xét của giáo viên:
I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2.0 pts)
A. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of following questions (0,4pt)
1. A. summer B. sun C. glue D. shut
2. A. pigs B. plants C. tables D. computers
B. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (1,6pts)
3. ………. a crossword puzzle is Billy's hobby in the free time.
A. Doing B. Playing C. Having D. Studying
4. Ha Long Bay is one of the most famous ……….. in Viet Nam.
A. neighborhoods B. natural wonders
C. mountains D. rivers
5. We live in a town house, but our grandparents live in a/ an …….. house.
A. villa B. country C. apartment D. city
6. Heavy traffic flow is a major source of noise ______ in urban areas.
A. polluting B. pollute C. polluted D. pollution
7. Is there a lamp ….. the table and the sofa?."
A. on B. in C. under D. between
8. "Look! The children ____ in the garden."
A. play B. are playing C. played D. plays
9. My father always has ……….. biscuit and a cup of tea at bedtime.
A. an B. an C. any D. some
10. "This book isn’t …… than the one I read last week."
A. more interesting B. interesting C. most interesting D. the interesting
II. READING (2.0pts):
A. Read the text about Trang carefully and choose the best words from the box to fill in the gaps. (1.0pt)
next to a lot of house beautiful play
My name is Trang. I live in a (11) …………... near the sea. It's an old house, about 100
years old, and it's very small. It has two floors. There are two bedrooms, a living room, a
bathroom and a kitchen. The bedrooms are upstairs. The bathroom is (12) …………...the
kitchen. There is a lovely fireplace in the living room. There is a (13) ……………garden in
front of the house. I live with my parents. I (14) ………... badminton with my father in my
free time. We have (15) ………...…fun. I love my house very much.
B. Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question. (1.0 pt)
My Neighborhood
I live in a small but lovely neighborhood. There is a park near my house where I often play badminton with
- my friends. Next to the park, there is a big supermarket. My family goes there every weekend to buy
groceries. Across the street from the supermarket, there is a nice bakery. The bread and cakes there are very
delicious. There is also a library in my neighborhood, and I usually go there to read books after school. I
love my neighborhood because it is quiet and friendly.
Questions:
16. What does the writer often do in the park?
A. Play football B. Play badminton C. Go jogging D. Ride a bike
17. Where does the writer’s family buy groceries?
A. At the market B. At the bakery C. At the supermarket D. At the library
18. How does the writer feel about the bakery?
A. It is expensive. B. The bread and cakes are delicious.
C. It is noisy. D. The bread and cakes are cheap.
19. What does the writer usually do after school?
A. Play with friends B. Read books at the library
C. Go to the park D. Visit the bakery
20. Why does the writer love their neighborhood?
A. It is large and modern. B. It is quiet and friendly.
C. It is crowded and noisy. D. It has many shops.
III. WRITING: (2.0pts)
A. Circle the mistakes in each sentence below (0,4pt)
21. This book is more better than I read one last week.
A B C D
22. Does she give you some advices about how to improve your English?
A B C D
B. Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged. (0.8 pts)
23. My mother is younger than my father.
-> My father…………………………………………………………………………
24. Does your neighborhood have a library?
-> Is there…………………………………………...………………………………?
25. Could you tell me the way to the nearest post office, please?
-> Where………………………………………………………………………, please?
26. There is a living room, a bedroom and a kitchen in my house.
-> My house has………………………………………………………………………
C. Write complete sentences from the prompts. (0,8 pt)
27. There/ be/ post office/ at/ corner/ street.
-> …………………………………………………………………………………….
28. Mai / be not / hardworking / than / her / classmates.
-> …………………………………………………………………………………….
IV. LISTENING: (2,0pts)
PART 1: Listen and decide if the statements below are true (T) or false (F) (1,0pt)
STATEMENTS T F
29. Students play football every Thursday afternoon
30. Students play cricket every Friday afternoon
31. The headmaster hates songs.
- 32. There is a singing contest each month.
33. Only girls join in flower arranging competition.
PART 2. Listen again and complete the sentences below. (1,0pt)
34. Linh’s family has a ……………… house. There are five rooms in her house.
35. My room is …………… the living room.
36. In Linh’s room, the desk is near the ……………................
37. Linh’s parents don’t have a ……………................ in their room.
38. There are many………… of Linh’s idol in her room
V. SPEAKING: (2,0pts)
ANSWER KEYS
I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2.0 pts)
A. Choose the word whose underlined part differs in pronunciation.
1. C. glue
2. A. pigs
B. Choose the correct answer.
3. A. Doing
4. B. natural wonders
5. B. country
6. D. pollution
7. D. between
8. B. are playing
9. D. some
10. A. more interesting
II. READING (2.0 pts):
A. Fill in the blanks.
11. house
12. next to
13. beautiful
14. play
15. a lot of
B. Answer the questions.
16. B. Play badminton
17. C. At the supermarket
18. B. The bread and cakes are delicious.
19. B. Read books at the library
20. B. It is quiet and friendly.
III. WRITING (2.0 pts):
A. Circle the mistakes.
21. B ("more better" → "better")
22. C ("some advices" → "some advice")
- B. Rewrite the sentences.
23. My father is older than my mother.
24. Is there a library in your neighborhood?
25. Where is the nearest post office, please?
26. My house has a living room, a bedroom, and a kitchen.
C. Write complete sentences.
27. There is a post office at the corner of the street.
28. Mai is not more hardworking than her classmates.
IV. LISTENING (2.0 pts):
PART 1: True or False.
29. T
30. T
31. F
32. T
33. F
PART 2: Fill in the blanks.
34. small
35. next to
36. window
37. television
38. pictures
THE MATRIX TABLE
Content Remember Understand Low Apply High Apply Total
I. LANGUAGE
COMPONENT (2.0 2.0 pts
pts)
Identify the word with
Pronunciation (0.4 a different
0.4 pt
pt) pronunciation (Q1,
Q2)
Use correct Understand Comparative
Vocabulary & Use correct
vocabulary (Q3, Q4, grammar structures forms (Q11, 1,6 pts
Grammar (1,6 pts) tenses (Q8)
Q5) (Q6, Q7, Q9, Q10) Q12)
II. READING (2.0
2.0 pts
pts)
Fill in the blanks with
Fill in the blanks
appropriate words 1.0 pt
(1.0 pt)
(Q13, Q14, Q15)
Reading Understand True/False Draw
comprehension (1.0 sentence meanings questions conclusions 1.0 pt
pt) (Q16, Q17, Q18) (Q19, Q20) (Q21, Q22)
III. WRITING (2.0
2.0 pts
pts)
Error identification Identify errors in
0.4 pt
(0.4 pt) sentences (Q21, Q22)
Sentence Rewrite sentences Write complete
transformation (1.2 while keeping sentences from 1.2 pts
pts) meaning (Q23-26) prompts (Q27, Q28)
- Content Remember Understand Low Apply High Apply Total
IV. LISTENING (2.0
2.0 pts
pts)
Listening
Listen and decide
comprehension (1.0 1.0 pt
True/False (Q29-33)
pt)
Fill in the blanks Listen and fill in the
1.0 pt
(1.0 pt) blanks (Q34-38)
15 questions (2.5 8 questions 3 questions
Total 12 questions (0.5 pts) 10 pts
pts) (2.5 pts) (0.5 pts)
TEST SPECIFICATION TABLE
Evaluation Number of Corresponding
Question Type Description
Objective Questions Marks
I. LANGUAGE
2.0 pts Grammar and Vocabulary
COMPONENT
Questions require students to
Choose the word
identify the word with a
A. Pronunciation with a different 2 questions 0.4 pts
different pronunciation in a
pronunciation
group of words.
Questions test vocabulary (Q3,
Choose the correct
Q4, Q5), grammar structures
B. Vocabulary & answer for
8 questions 1.6 pts (Q6, Q7, Q9, Q10), tenses
Grammar vocabulary and
(Q8), and comparatives (Q11,
grammar questions
Q12).
II. READING 2.0 pts Reading Comprehension
Questions ask students to
A. Fill in the Fill in the gaps with
3 questions 1.0 pt choose the correct word to
Blanks appropriate words
complete a passage.
Read the passage and
Questions require students to
B. Reading answer the questions
5 questions 1.0 pt understand and answer based
Comprehension (True/False, fill in
on the information in the text.
details)
III. WRITING 2.0 pts Writing
Questions ask students to spot
A. Find the Identify errors in
2 questions 0.4 pts and correct mistakes in
Mistakes sentences
sentences.
Questions require students to
Rewrite sentences
B. Sentence change the structure of
while maintaining 4 questions 0,8 pts
Transformation sentences without changing
the meaning
the meaning.
Write full sentences Questions require students to
C. Write Complete
from the provided 2 questions 0.8 pts use the provided words to
Sentences
prompts form complete sentences.
IV. LISTENING 2.0 pts Listening
- Evaluation Number of Corresponding
Question Type Description
Objective Questions Marks
Questions require students to
A. Listen and Listen and decide if
listen and decide if the
Determine the statements are 5 questions 1.0 pt
statement is true or false based
True/False true or false
on the audio.
Listen and complete Questions require students to
B. Listen and Fill
the sentences with 5 questions 1.0 pt listen and fill in the missing
in the Blanks
missing words words in the sentences.
V. SPEAKING 2.0 pts
38 Total number of questions and
Total 10 pts
questions marks for the entire test.
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