Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Phước Mỹ, Phước Sơn

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Phước Mỹ, Phước Sơn

UBND HUYỆN PHƯỚC SƠN TRƯỜNG TH&THCS PHƯỚC MỸ MATRIX FOR THE FIRST TERM TEST (ENGLISH 7) School year: 2023-2024 No. of Com PARTS Mark Task types Ques TN TL TN TL TN 5 1.0 - Listen and tick True/ 1.0 LISTENIN False G 5 - Listen and (2,0) 1.0 fill in each 1,0 blank Choose the word which has the underlined 2 0.4 part 0,4 pronounced LANGUAG differently E from the COMPON others. ENTS MCQs: (2,0) 3 0,6 Circle the 0,4 0,2 best option MCQs: 5 1,0 Circle the 0,4 0,6 best option Complete the reading passage 5 1,0 0,8 0,2 with the READING words or (2,0) phrases in Read the text and 5 1,0 0,8 0,2 circle the best answer: 2 0,4 (Error WRITING identificatio (2,0) n) Circle A, B, C or D 0,4 which is not correct in standard English 4 0,8 (Sentence transformati on) Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged
2 0,8 (Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words given. TOTAL(8,0) 38 8.0 2,2 2 0,4 Introduction 0,4 SPEAKIN 5 1,0 Topic G speaking 0,2 0,8 (2,0) 3 0,6 Questions and Answer Grand Total 48 10,0 (10,0) 3,0 UBND HUYỆN PHƯỚC SƠN TRƯỜNG TH&THCS PHƯỚC MỸ SPECIFICATION FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 7) School year: 2023-2024 CONTENTS No. of Com Low App PARTS Mark R Ques TL TN TL TN - Question 1-5: - Listen to LISTENIN two friends Listen and 5 1.0 1.0 G Jamie and tick True or (2,0) Sally False ordering food in a restaurant. - Question 6- 10: - Listen again and Listen again Fill in each 5 1.0 and Fill in 1,0 blank with each blank ONE SUITABLE WORD. Pronunciat Indicate the LANGUA ion: word whose GE - Question underlined COMPON 11: sounds/ part is 2 0.4 0,4 ENTS ᴐ:/ & / ᴐ/ pronounced (2,0) - Question differently 12: sounds form the /ʃ/, / ʒ/ others Grammar 1 0,2
points: - Question 13: 1 sentence MCQs: about verbs Circle the of liking 0,2 best option and disliking with the answer “ playing” Vocabulary : - Question 14: 1 noun MCQs: about 1 0,2 Circle the 0,2 hobbies best option with the answer “gardening ” Vocabulary : - Question 15: 1 noun about music and art with the answer “art 2 0,4 gallery” 0,4 - Question Odd one 16: 1 noun out about food and drink with the answer “ lemonade” Grammar points: - Question 17: 1 sentence about 1 0,2 0,2 describing quantities with the answer “ some” - Question 3 0,6 18: 1 sentence about past simple - Question 19: 1 sentence about giving an advice - Question 20: 1 sentence
about comparison s READING - Question (2,0) 21 : 1 word about adjective with the answer “different” - Question 22: 1 word about a verb with the answer “listen” (Cloze test) - Question 4 0,8 Read the 0,8 23: 1 word text about about a music preposition festival and with the choose the answer best option “in” to fill in the - Question blank 24: 1 word about an tobe with the answer “are” - Question 25: 1 word about an 1 0,2 0,2 noun with the answer “world” - Question ( Reading 26: circle comprehens the best ion) Read answer for the text a WH- about question singing - Question contest and 27: circle circle the the best best answer: answer for 4 0,8 0,8 a WH- question - Question 28: Find the synonym word from the text - Question 1 0,2 29: What does the word “…” in the text refer to? - Question
30: Find the incorrect statement - Question 31: 1 sentence about describing (Error quantities identificatio with the n) Circle A, answer “ B, C or D any” 2 0,4 which is not - Question 0,4 correct in 32: 1 standard sentence English about asking price with the answer “ much” - Question 33: -1 sentence about verbs of liking and disliking - Question (Sentence WRITING 34: 1 transformati (2,0) sentence on) Rewrite about the comparison sentences so s as its - Question 4 0,8 meaning 35: 1 keeps sentence unchanged about should - Question 36: 1 sentence about expressing preference - Question 37: 1 (Sentence sentence building) about Write simple past complete - Question 2 0,8 sentences 38: 1 from the sentence words about given. simple sentence TOTAL(8,0) 38 8.0 3 2,2 SPEAKIN - Introduce 2 0,4 Introduction , 0,4 G personal (2,0) information (hobby, school,
houses, family, teacher, subject..) -Randomly take one vocab topic (hobby/heal thy/healthy living/ community service/ music and art/ food and drink) -5 minutes for preparation - Look at Topic the pictures 5 1,0 0,2 0,8 speaking and answer the question “What is this?” -Spell one word - two vocabs in situation -Student point the word form teacher’s explanation -Answer three questions about one of the topics Questions ((hobby/hea 3 0,6 and lthy/healthy Answers living/ community service/ music and art/ food and drink) Grand Total 48 10,0 4 3,0 (10,0)
UBND HUYỆN PHƯỚC SƠN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA MÔN: TIẾNG A TRƯỜNG TH&THCS PHƯỚC MỸ HỌC KỲ I - NĂM HỌC: 202 Thời gian làm bài : 60 phú Họ và tên :.......................................... Ngày kiểm tra:............./..../ 20 Lớp : ............... (không kể thời gian giao đề) Điểm Lời phê của GV - Chữ ký giám khảo 1: - Chữ ký giám khảo 2: A. LISTENING: (2 pts) Listen to two friends Jamie and Sally ordering food in a restaurant. Part 1. Decide these statements below are True or False. True False 1. The customers want two tables. 2. The two customers order the same starter. 3. Both of them order the Thai chicken for their main course. 4. The customers order juice and mineral water. 5. Both customers order a dessert.
Part 2. Fill in each blank with ONE SUITABLE WORD. 6. A table _____ two, please. 7. Are you ______ to order? 8. What would you ______ for your starter? 9. I’d like French onion _______, please. 10. I’ll have a ______ orange juice. B. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS. (2,0 pts ) I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. (0,4 pt) 11. A. want B. water C. walk D. waterfall 12. A. visual B. pleasure C. television D. impression II. Circle the correct option A, B, C or D. (1,6 pts ) 13. My best friend hates……………. computer games. A. plays B. playing C. to play D. play 14. My hobby is …………………. because we can sell flowers for money. A. gardening B. reading C. riding a horse D. making models 15. Odd one out A. art gallery B. actress C. painter D. musician 16. Odd one out A. pancake B. lemonade C. chicken D. spring roll 17. I need ………………. apples for this recipe. A. a lot of B. lots of C. an D. some 18. Which sentence is the negative statement? “They helped the elderly in the village.” A. They don’t help the elderly in the village B. They didn’t helped the elderly in the village. C. They didn’t help the elderly in the village. D. They won’t help the elderly in the village. 19. Which is the best advice for the following situation? “ Linda wants beautiful healthy skin.” A. She shouldn’t talk in the class. B. She should eat more fruit and vegetables. C. She shouldn’t drink much water. D. She should eat more sweets. 20. Which sentence is the closest meaning with following statement? “The country life is more peaceful than the city life”
A. The country life is as peaceful as the city life B. The city life is not as peaceful as the country life. C. The city life is as peaceful as the country life. D. The country life is not as peaceful as the city life C. READING. (2,0 pts) I. Complete the reading passage with the words or phrases in the box (1,0 pt ) in Television different are world listen There are many (21)_______ways for people to discover and ______(22) to music. British teenagers can enjoy listening to music on the Internet, on TV or they can go outside and enjoy live performances. The O2 in London is the second largest live music arena (23)_________Europe. There you can see world-famous bands such as One Direction, Justin Bieber, Scissor Sisters, Prince, The Rolling Stones, Elton John, and Take That. This massive stadium has space for 20,000 people. It also has 548 toilets! Tickets are not cheap. You can pay more than £50 to see a concert at The O2. What about free live music? There (24)_________music festivals across Britain every year that are completely free of charge. Last year more than 150,000 people went to the Tramlines free music festival in Sheffield in the north of England. The two-day festival is held every July. Last year there were nine hundred performances in total including local bands as well as music from all over the (25)_________. II. Read the passage and circle the best answer. (1,0 pt ) Jenny and Sarah are practising singing a Vietnamese folk song to take part in a singing contest only for foreign students who are studying in schools in Ho Chi Minh City. Their song is “Hoa thơm bướm lượn”. It has a beautiful melody, but they find it challenging because the lyrics are difficult for them to pronounce. With the help of Miss Thanh, their Vietnamese tutor, their performance is improving significantly. Besides singing, they also have to practise a traditional dance in order to impress the judges and the audience. Although the dance is not as difficult as the song, they still rehearse very hard. With a lot of efforts, both girls hope they will have a great performance and win the contest. 26. What do Jenny and Sarah think about the song? A. The melody is hard but the lyrics are lovely. B. The melody is beautiful but the lyrics are difficult. C. The melody is challenging but the lyrics are easy. D. They melody is hard and the lyrics are easy to pronounce. 27. According to the passage, which statement is true? A. Jenny and Sarah are practising singing a English song. B. Jenny and Sarah find that it’s easy to sing Vietnamese songs. C. Jenny and Sarah has a Vietnamese tutor, Mr Thanh. D. Jenny and Sarah are studying in Ho Chi Minh City 28. What is the closest in meaning to the word “ take part in” in line 1?
A. enjoy B. buy C. join D. perform 29. What does the word “ They” in the text refer to? A. Vietnamese B. Students C. Miss Thanh D. Jenny and Sarah 30. According to the passage, which statement is NOT true? A. Jenny and Sarah are foreign students. B. They practise a traditional dance to make an impression on the judges and the audience. C. The dance is as difficult as the song. D. Jenny and Sarah will have a great performance and win the contest. D. WRITING: (2.0 pts) I. Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English. (0, 4 pt ) 31. I have to go to the market now. There isn’t a food for our dinner. A B C D 32. How many is a bottle of milk? - It is 3,000 dong. A B C D II. Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged. (0, 8 pt) 33. My father doesn’t like cooking. (HATE)  My …………………………………………………………………………..… 34. The picture in Minh’s room is not like the picture in the store. ( DIFFERENT)  The picture …………………………………………………….………………… 35. It’s a good idea to eat a lot of fruit and vegetables every day. ( SHOULD)  We………………………………………………………………………..……. 36. I love folk music better. (PREFER)  I ……………………………………………………………………….……… III. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0,8 pt ) 37. They/ plant/ lot/ trees / park /last year /. →…………………………………………………………………………………… 38. My brother/ not/ exercise/ every morning / →…………………………………………………………………………………… UBND HUYỆN PHƯỚC SƠN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 TRƯỜNG TH& THCS PHƯỚC MỸ HỌC KÌ I - NĂM HỌC: 2023 – 2024
Thời gian làm bài : 60 phút SPEAKING TEST I. INTRODUCTION: (0.4 pt) Introduce personal information ( name, age, school, family, hobbies,…) II. TOPIC SPEAKING. (1.0 pt/ 5 questions): III. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: (3 questions/ 1 student) Answer the questions basing on one of the topics. TOPIC 1: HOBBIES
1 2 3 4 12 5
11 6 10 9 8 7 TOPIC 2: HEALTHY LIVING 1 2 3 4
12 5 11 6
10 9 8 7 TOPIC 3: COMMUNITY SERVICE 1 2 3 4
12 5 11 6
10 9 8 7 UNIT 4: MUSIC AND ARTS 1 2 3 4
12 5 11 6
10 9 8 7 UNIT 5: FOOD AND DRINK 1 2 3 4 12 5
11 6 10 9 8 7 III. QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: TOPIC 1: HOBBIES 1. Do you like reading books/painting…? 2. How much free time do you have a day? 3. What do you (not like doing? 4. Who do you ………….with? 5. Where do you play football/ ? 6. What are the benefits of making models/ riding a horse?