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Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Quang Trung, Hội An

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“Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Quang Trung, Hội An” được chia sẻ nhằm giúp các bạn học sinh ôn tập, làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi và các dạng bài tập có khả năng ra trong bài thi sắp tới. Cùng tham khảo và tải về đề thi này để ôn tập chuẩn bị cho kì thi sắp diễn ra nhé! Chúc các bạn thi tốt!

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Quang Trung, Hội An

  1. ỦY BAN NHÂN DÂN TP HỘI AN KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KÌ I ĐIỂM TRƯỜNG TH-THCS QUANG TRUNG MÔN : ENGLISH Lớp 7 Thời gian: 45 phút Họ và tên……………..…………………….. Năm học 2024-2025 I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2pts) (1-2) Circle the letter has different pronunciation from others (0,4pt). 1. A. bird B. earth C. learn D. work 2. A. lunch B. gym C. jog D. intelligent (3-10) Circle the best answer (1,6 pts): 3. Some hobbies likecarving eggs or making models make you more______ A. active B. creative C. friendly D. comfortable 4. _____ is a place where elderly people live and receive medical treatment and care A. school B. hospital C. nursing home D. nursery school 5. Van Cao is the ________ of Viet Nam’s national anthem “Tien Quan Ca” A. teacher B. actor C. singer D. composer 6. Would you like _______ coffee? -Yes, please A. some B. many C. any D. much 7. They often ________books in the school library in their freetime A. read B. reads C. reading D.to read 8. My sisiter _______ and sang with My Tam singer last May A. sees B. to see C. saw D. seeing 9. My birthday is _____ the fifth of April A. in B. at C. on D.of 10. Rock and roll is not __________ jazz music A. as B. different C. same D. like II. READING (2pts) (11-15) Read the text and fill in the blank with a suitable word from the box: (1pt) We need (11) __________ or energy to do the things we do every day such as walking, (12) __________ a bike and even sleeping! We get calories from the (13) __________ we eat. If we eat too many, we can get fat. If we don't eat enough we feel tired and weak. People should have between 1,600 and 2,500 calories a day to stay in shape. Sports and activities like riding a bike and running use (14) __________of calories. Sleeping and watching TV use (15) __________. Do you think you are eating more or less calories than you need? (16-20) Read the text and circle the best answer (1pt)
  2. Baking is one of my favourite hobbies. Baking allows me to be creative and hard-working. First, I can follow the recipe exactly as written, or I can change the recipe by adding new ingredients. The second reason why I like baking is because the entire process of baking brings me a lot of fun. I love to go to the grocery to shop for ingredients, and then combine them all together to make a product that many people enjoy. Being able to share things that I bake is another reason why. I love this hobby. Many of my friends look forward to the tasty treat that I share with them. These are just a few of the reasons why I am fond of baking. 16. It is obvious in the passage that _____. A. the author loves baking for many reasons B. the author likes baking because she likes eating delicious food C. baking is one kind of kitchen arts D. the author enjoys baking because she wants to be a chef 17. How many reasons does the author say? A. one B. two C. three D. four 18. Which statement is NOT true? A. The author likes shopping for ingredients B. The author becomes creative and lazy with cooking. C. The author loves sharing good meals with her friends. D. The author finds baking interesting and funny. 19. We understand from the passage that _____. A. the author loves baking, but she doesn’t like doing other activities B. the author loves doing many things C. baking is one of the author’s hobbies D. the author not only loves baking but also enjoys painting 20. What does the word “them” in the text refer to? A. her family B. her cousins C. teachers D. friends III. WRITING (2pts) (21-22). Circle the letter which is not correct in standard English (0,4pt): 21. How many is a bottle of mineral water? A B C D 22. Quan Ho singing is different to Cai luong opera A B C D (23-26). Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keep unchanged(0,8pt): 23. I think hip hop music is more exciting than jazz music. (AS … AS) I think jazz music is not_________________________________________________. 24. Eating too much sugary food is not good for your health. (SHOULDN’T) You________________________________________________________________ 25. Singing is my favourite activity in my freetime (HOBBY) My_________________________________________________________________ 26. What is the price of this book? (MUCH) How________________________________________________________________ (27-28). Write complete sentences from the words given (0,8pt)
  3. 27. We/ pick/ litter/ plant/vegetables/ our school garden => _________________________________________________________________ 28. Canh chua / kind / Vietnamese soup => __________________________________________________________________ IV. LISTENING (2pts) (29-33) Listen and tick T/F (1pt) (NGHE 1- ENGLISH 7) No statements True False 29 Megan always has milk and bread for breakfast. 30 She has a cheese sandwich, a yogurt and orange juice for lunch 31 She usually has a snack at school 32 Megan has a steak and chips with her parents when they eat out 33 Megan’s best friend prefers burgers and sausages (34-38) Listen and choose the best answer (1pt): (NGHE 2 -ENGLISH 7) 34. Heart to Heart Charity mainly helps ________in Viet Nam. A. orphan B. poor children C. homeless children D. elderly people 35. Last _____, they had a lot of volunteer activities in Cao Bang and Ha Giang. A. June B. week C. July D. month. 36. ………… people donated money to the charity. A. 50 B. 43 C. 134 D. 15 37. All the money was spent on buying food, _____ and medicine for the children. A. clothes B. books C. toys D. souvenirs 38. We teach children _________ and English and telling stories to them A. Chinese B.Italian C. Japanese D. Vietnamese V. SPEAKING (2pts)
  4. FEEDBACK THE FIRST END- TEST ENGLISH 7 I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2pts) (1-10)Circle the best answer (2pts) (each correct answer is 0,2 pt) 1.B 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.D 6.A 7.A 8.C 9.C 10.D II. READING (2pts) (11-15) Read the text and fill in the blank with a suitable word from the box: (1pt) (each correct answer is 0,2 pt) 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. calories riding food a lot less (16-20) Read the text and circle the best answer (1pt) (each correct answer is 0,2 pt) 16. A 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. D III. WRITING (2pts) (21-22). Circle the letter which is not correct in standard English (0,4pt): (each correct answer is 0,2 pt) 21. A(many=much) 22. C(to=from) (23-26). Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keep unchanged (0,8pt): (each correct answer is 0,2 pt) 23. I think jazz music is not as exciting as hip hop music 24. You shouldn’t eat too much sugary food 25. My hobby is singing 26. How much is this book?
  5. (27-28). Write complete sentences from the words given (0,8pt) (each correct answer is 0,2 pt) 27. We pick up litter and plant vegetables in our school garden 28. Canh chua is a kind of Vietnamese soup IV. LISTENING (2pts) (29-33) Listen and tick T/F(1pt): (each correct answer is 0,2 pt) 29. F 30. T 31.F 32. F 33. T Audio script: My name is Megan. I don’t eat meat but I eat fish, cheese and eggs. For breakfast, I usually have a glass of milk and some fruit. At lunch time, I have my packed lunch: a cheese sandwich, a yogurt and an orange juice. I don’t eat school meals because I don’t like them. When I get home from school, I usually have a snack: a packet of crisps or some fruit. For dinner, we often have fish with salad or pasta. My favourite meal is pizza, I sometimes go to a restaurant with my parents at the weekend. I love Italian foods but my parents prefer French foods. Sometimes, we have a pizza and sometimes we go to my parents’ favourite restaurant. They always have steak and chips. It’s difficult for me because I don’t like meat, so I usually have salad. I think good food is very important. I eat fruit and vegetables every day. My best friend never eats salad or fruit. She prefers burgers and sausages. (34-38) Listen and choose the best answer (1pt) (each correct answer is 0,2 pt) 34. B 35. C 36. B 37. A 38. D Audio script: Hello, I’m Minh Quang. This is July report of the Heart to Heart charity. We are a non-profit that helps poor children in Vietnam. Last July, we had a lot of volunteer activities in Cao Bang and Ha Giang. We highly appreciate your support and donation. All the books and clothes were sent to 850 poor children in the two provinces. We have received 62 million VND from 43 donors. All the money was then spent on buying food, clothes and medicines for the children. We would like to thank 50 volunteers for your time, efforts and endless love for the children. We had a meaningful trip with lots of useful and exciting activities for the children such as teaching them Vietnamese and English and telling stories to
  6. them. We always need new volunteers. Your donation of any kind will always be welcomed. So please don’t hesitate to contact us via: … V. SPEAKING (2pt) SPECIFICATION FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST-ENGLISH 7 School year: 2024-2025 PARTS CONTENTS No. of Ques Mark Task types Re Com Low App High App
  7. TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL
  8. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0) Pronunciation -Q1: sounds/ /ə/, / ɜ:/ -Q2: sounds /tʃ/ and /dʒ/ 2 0.5 Pronunciation: Indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently form the others/ stress 0,5
  9. Vocabulary: - Q3: 1 word about hobby -Q4: 1 word about nusing home 2 0 4 MCQs: Circle the best option 0,4
  10. Vocabulary: -Q5: 1 word about composer 1 0,2 0,2 Grammar points: -Q 6: 1 sentence about uncountable N -Q7: 1 sentence about S.Present 2 0,4 MCQs: Circle the best option 0,4
  11. Grammar points: -Q 8: 1 sentence about S. past -Q9: 1 sentence about preposition -Q10: 1 sentence about comparisons 3 0,6 0,6
  12. READING (2,0) -Q11: 1 word about a Noun -Q12: 1 word about question word -Q13: 1 word about a Noun -Q14: 1 word about a countable Noun 4 0,8
  13. (Cloze test) Read the text about festival of Thais and fill in the blank (with suitable words from the box) 0,8 -Q15: 1 word aboutuncountable noun 1 0,2 0,2
  14. -Q16: It is obvious in the passage that _____. Q17: How many reasons does the author say? -Q18: Which statement is NOT true? -Q19: We understand from the passage? -Q1 4 0,8 ( Reading comprehension) Read the text about customs and traditions and circle the best answer: 0,8 -Q20: What does the word “them” in the text refer to? 1 0,2
  15. 0,2 WRITING (2,0) -Q21: 1 sentence about uncountable N -Q22: 1 sentence about comparisons 2 0,4 (Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English 0,4
  16. -Q23: -1 sentence about comparisons -Q24: 1 sentence about advice -Q25: 1 sentence about hobby -Q26: 1 sentence about ask the price 4 0,8 (Sentence transformation) Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged
  17. 0,8 -Q27: 1 sentence about community -Q28: 1 sentence about verb of food 2 0,8 (Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words given.
  18. 0,8 LISTENING (2,0) -Q29-33: T/F statement 5 1.0 - Listen to a Dialogue about festival of Khmer and tick T/F 1.0
  19. -Q34-38: Choose the best answer 5 1.0 - Listen to life of minority children and circle the best answer 1,0 TOTAL (8,0) 38
  20. 10.0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 SPEAKING (2,0) - Introduce personal information 2 0,4 Introduction
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