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Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT Châu Đức

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Việc ôn tập và hệ thống kiến thức với ‘Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Phòng GD&ĐT Châu Đức’ được chia sẻ dưới đây sẽ giúp bạn nắm vững các phương pháp giải bài tập hiệu quả và rèn luyện kỹ năng giải đề thi nhanh và chính xác để chuẩn bị tốt nhất cho kì thi sắp diễn ra. Cùng tham khảo và tải về đề thi này ngay bạn nhé!

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  1. UBND HUYỆN CHÂU ĐỨC KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Học sinh làm bài vào đề) Số báo Giám thị 1 Giám thị 2 Số phách Họ tên HS: ………….......................................... danh Lớp: 6 …… Trường: THCS ……………………………... ………….... -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Điểm Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 Số phách I. Listening: (2.0 pts) Part 1. You will hear four short conversations. There is one question for each conversation. Listen and circle the best answer (A, B or C) to each question. (1.0 pt.) 1. What did Peter do yesterday? – He played ……………….. A. basketball B. baseball C. tennis 2. Where does Bill live? – He lives ……………….. A. in a cloth shop B. in a toy shop C. next to the playground 3. What did Jim’s grandmother give him for his birthday? A. a new bike B. some CDs C. a sweater 4. Where is Mary going? – She’s going to ……………….. A. the library B. the Park Cinema C. the ABC Cinema Part 2. Listen to a text about Daisy and fill in each gap with one word or number you hear. (1.0 pt.) Daisy is a very very special (1) ………………….... of mine. Her legs were broken, and she will (2) ………………….... walk again. Every day she goes to school by herself in a wheelchair. It takes her nearly one hour to get to school. But she never misses class, even on (3) ………………..….. days. She is hard-working and study well. We are all afraid of exams except Daisy. We do the test in 60 minutes, but she only needs 45 minutes to finish it. She is always in the top (4) ………………..….. of my class. II- Multiple choice: (2.5 pts) 1. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. there B. than C. weather D. theater 2. Home robots are more useful today, they can ……………….. the dishes, iron clothes, put toys away, … A. do B. play C. go D. have 3. Pick up ……………….. around your school to keep the school clean. A. water B. environment C. rubbish D. pollution 4. We love outdoor activities, ……………….. we spend every Saturday afternoon playing sports. A. but B. so C. and D. Ø 5. The book is ……………….., but you are welcome to read it. A. my B. mine C. yours D. your 6. I was at the gym last Sunday, but I ……………….. you there. A. wasn’t see B. don’t see C. not saw D. didn’t see 7. I think we ……………….. to a new school next year. A. move B. moved C. are moving D. will move 8. WB2 is ……………….. worker robot in the robot show here. A. the strongest B. strongest C. stronger D. strong 9. Boy: Wow! You’ve got a new bike. – Girl: ………………..………………... A. No. It’s new. B. Yes. It’s old. C. Yes. My mum bought it for me. D. Yes, great! 10. Circle A, B, C or D under the word or phrase that is NOT correct. There is a big temple in our town. A temple is very old. A B C D
  2. Lưu ý: Học sinh không viết vào khung này. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- III- Reading comprehension. (2.5 pts) A. Choose and circle the best answers to complete the text below. (1.25 pt.) Television is one of man’s most important means (1) ______ communication. It brings pictures and sounds from around the world into millions of (2) ______. Through television, home viewers can see and learn about people, places (3) ______ things in faraway lands. In addition to all these things, television brings its (4) ______ a steady stream of programmes that are designed to entertain. In fact, TV provides many more entertainment programmes (5) ______ any other kind. The programmes include dramas, comedies, sports, and motion pictures. 1. A. for B. of C. with D. on 2. A. homes B. schools C. markets D. parks 3. A. so B. but C. or D. and 4. A. seers B. watchers C. viewers D. listeners 5. A. as B. like C. than D. same B. Read the passage and circle the best answer to each question. (1.25 pt.) My dream house will be a country cottage. Though many people like to live in a big house, I prefer living in a small one on a farm because I enjoy fresh air and peaceful atmosphere. Like most cottages, my house will be quiet. There will be a living room, four bedrooms, two bathrooms and large windows that will let in a lot of natural light. In the living room, there will be a reading table, a sofa, and a computer. The reading table will become a dining table, and the sofa will turn into a bed at night. I love flowers, so I will plant various kinds of flowers around the house. I think it might be really lovely. I will take a lot of photos of flowers every day. This is my hobby. 1. According to the passage, the writer’s dream house will be …………………… A. a big house. B. an old house. C. a modern villa D. a farm cottage 2. The house will not have ……………………. A. any windows B. a large window C. large windows D. 2 windows 3. The computer will be ……………………. A. in the living room B. in one of the bedrooms C. near a window D. on the reading table 4. What will happen to the sofa at night? – It will become …………………… A. a reading table B. a bed C. a dining table D. an armchair 5. The writer’s hobby is ……………………. A. reading books B. watching TV C. planting trees D. taking photos of flowers IV- Do as directed in brackets. (3.0 pts) 1. They are hard-working students. They always get good marks. (Combine the 2 sentences, using “so”) → ........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................ 2. Duong played table tennis with Duy yesterday. (Make a question for the underlined word) → ........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................ 3. You often read books. You are better. (Combine the 2 sentences to make a first conditional sentence) → If .................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................. 4. No other city in Viet Nam is as clean as Da Nang City. (Rewrite the sentence, using superlative) → Da Nang is ........................................................................................................ in Viet Nam. 5. Write a paragraph about your TV-viewing habits. (about 40 words) ............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................... ...............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................
  3. UBND HUYỆN CHÂU ĐỨC KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023 PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 6 ----------------------------- Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Ngày kiểm tra: 11 tháng 5 năm 2023 (Hướng dẫn chấm có 01 trang) I. Listening: (2.0 pts) (0.25 mark for each correct sentence) Part 1:. Listen and circle the best answer (A, B or C) to each question. (1.0 pt.) 1. A. basketball 2. C. next to the playground 3. A. a new bike 4. B. the Park Cinema Part 2. Listen and fill in each gap with one word or number you hear. (1.0 pt.) 1. friend 2. never 3. rainy 4. three / 3 II. Multiple choice: (2.5 pts) (0.25 mark for each correct sentence) 1. D. theater 2. A. do 3. C. rubbish 4. B. so 5. B. mine 6. D. didn’t see 7. D. will move 8. A. the strongest 9. C. Yes. My mum bought it for me. 10. C III. Reading. (2.5 pts) (0.25 mark for each correct sentence) A. 1. B. of 2. A. homes 3. D. and 4. C. viewers 5. C. than B. 1. D. a farm cottage 2. C. large windows 3. A. in the living room 4. B. a bed 5. D. taking photos of flowers IV. Do as directed in brackets. (3.0 pts) 1. They are hard working students, so they always get good marks. ( 0.5 pt) 2. When did Duong play table tennis with Duy? (0.5 pt) 3. If you often read books, you will be better. (0.5 pt) 4. Da Nang is the cleanest city in Viet Nam. (0.5 pt) 5. Write a paragraph about your TV-viewing habits. (about 40 words) (1.0 pt.) (Căn cứ bài viết thực tế của học sinh để chấm) Bài viết cần bao quát một số nội dung sau: - How much students like watching TV (a lot / so so / not much / …) - How many hours a day (1 / 2 / 3 / … hour(s) a day) - When they often watch TV (in the morning / afternoon / evening / …) - Do they watch TV while eating or learning (always / usually / often / sometimes / …) - TV programme they like most (Cartoons / Sports / Science / …) --------- The end of the test ---------
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