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Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Huệ, Bắc Trà My

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‘Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Huệ, Bắc Trà My’ là tài liệu tham khảo được TaiLieu.VN sưu tầm để gửi tới các em học sinh đang trong quá trình ôn thi kết thúc học phần, giúp sinh viên củng cố lại phần kiến thức đã học và nâng cao kĩ năng giải đề thi. Chúc các em học tập và ôn thi hiệu quả!

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Huệ, Bắc Trà My

  1. PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO BẮC TRÀ MY MATRIX FOR THE SECOND END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 6) School year: 2022-2023 (60-minute Test) PARTS No. of Mark Task types Re Com Low App High App Ques T TL TN TL TN TL TL TN N Indicate the word whose underlined part is 2 0.4 pronounced differently form the others 0,4 Sounds: / ð/, / θ/; sounds:/e/, / æ/ Indicate the word which has a different stress 2 0.4 pattern. 0,4 LANGUAGE COMPONENT MCQs: Circle the best option. Words relating to 3 0,6 television, sports and games, our greener world. 0,2 (2,0) 0,4 MCQs: Circle the best option: simple past tense, 3 0,6 Simple future tense, Conditional sentence type 1 0.6 Read the text and fill in the blank (with suitable READING 5 1,0 0,6 0,4 words from the box) (2,0) 5 1,0 Read the text and circle the best answer: 0,8 0,2 2 0,4 (Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English WRITING 1
  2. 0,4 2 0,4 (Making questions) Write questions to the 0,4 underlined words. (2,0) 2 0,4 Rearrange the words to make meaningful 0.4 sentences. 2 0,8 (Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words given. 0,8 5 1.0 - Listen and tick T/ F 1.0 LISTENING (2,0) 5 1.0 - Listen and circle the best answer 1,0 TOTAL(8,0) 38 8.0 3,8 2,4 1,0 0,8 2 0,4 Introduction 0,4 SPEAKING 5 1,0 Topic speaking 0,2 0,6 0,2 (2,0) 3 0,6 Questions and Answer 0,4 0,2 Grand Total 48 10,0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0) 2
  3. PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC ĐÀO TẠO BẮC TRÀ MY SPECIFICATION FOR THE SECOND END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 6) School year: 2022-2023 PARTS CONTENTS No. of Mark Task types Re Com Low High App App Ques T T T T TL TL TL TL N N N N Pronunciation: Indicate the word whose -Sen 1: sounds / ð/, / θ/ underlined part is 2 0.4 0,4 -Sen 2: sounds: /e/, / æ/ pronounced differently form the others - Sen 3: stress in two-syllable Indicate the word which words (nouns) has a different stress - Sen 4: stress in two-syllable 2 0.4 pattern. 0,4 words (verb and adjectives ) LANGUAGE - Vocabulary: COMPONENT -Sen 5: 1 noun about television (2,0) -Sen 6: 1 adjective about sports and games 3 0,6 0,4 0,2 MCQs: Circle the best -Sen 7: 1 verb about protecting option environment. 3
  4. Grammar points: -Sen 8: 1 sentence about simple past tense -Sen 9: 1 sentence about simple 3 0,6 MCQs: Circle the best 0,6 future tense option -Sen 10: 1 sentence about conditional sentence type 1 READING -Sen 11: 1 word about a verb (2,0) -Sen 12: 1 word about a noun (Cloze test) Read the text about Cities of the world -Sen 13: 1 word about a and fill in the blank (with preposition 5 1,0 0,6 0,4 suitable words from the -Sen 14: 1 word about an box)(one extra adjective adjective given) -Sen 15: 1 word about a verb -Sen 16: Choose the best answer 5 1,0 ( Reading comprehension) 0,8 for a WH-question Read the text about Our houses in the future and - Sen 17: Choose the best circle the best answer answer for a WH-question -Sen 18: Choose the best answer for a WH-question -Sen 19: Find the NOT TRUE statement. 4
  5. -Sen 20: What does the word “…” in the text refer to? 0,2 -Sen 21: 1 sentence about possessive adjectives. (Error identification) Circle WRITING 2 0,4 A, B, C or D which is not -Sen 22: 1 sentence about correct in standard English (2,0) 0,4 conjunctions. -Sen 23: 1 question with “what” using simple present tense (Making questions) Write -Sen 24: 1 question with “how” 2 questions to the underlined 0,4 word/phrase. 0,4 using simple past tense -Sen 25: 1 sentence about exclamation (Sentence building) -Sen 26: 1 sentence about future 2 0,4 Rearrange the words to 0,4 houses using simple future make meaningful sentences. tense. -Sen 27: 1 sentence about (Sentence building) Write simple past tense. complete sentences from 2 0,8 0,8 5
  6. -Sen 28: 1 sentence about the words given. environment using conditional sentence type 1. -Sen 29-33: T/F statement - Listen about Our house in 5 1.0 1.0 the future and tick T/F LISTENING -Sen 34-38: Choose the best - Listen about Our greener (2,0) answer for a WH-question world then circle the best 5 1.0 answer 10 TOTAL(8,0) 38 8.0 3,8 2,4 1,0 0,8 SPEAKING - Introduce personal information (school, houses, 2 0,4 Introduction 0,4 (2,0) family, hobby.. ) -Randomly take one vocab topic 5 1,0 Topic speaking 0,2 0,6 0,2 (Television, Sports and games, cities of the world, our houses in the future, our greener world) -5 minutes for preparation - Look at the pictures and answer the question “What is this?” 6
  7. -Spell one word - two vocabs in situation -Student points the word from teacher’s explanation -Answer three questions about one of the topics (Television, Sports and games, cities of the 3 0,6 Questions and Answers 0,4 0,2 world, our houses in the future, our greener world) Grand Total 48 10,0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0) 7
  8. TRƯỜNG ………………………………. ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II Họ và tên: ………………………………. NĂM HỌC 2022-2023 Lớp: …………. Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút Điểm Nhận xét của giáo viên A. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS TEST (2.0pts) I. PHONETIC: Choose a word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others by circling the letter A, B, C or D. (0.4pt) 1. A. theatre B. earth C. them D. anything 2. A. channel B. landscape C. map D. tennis II. Choose a word which has a different stress pattern is placed differently from the others by circling the letter A, B, C or D. (0.4 pt) 3. A. cartoon B. racket C. helmet D. viewer 4. A. reused B. exchanged C. reduced D. cycled III. VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR/STRUCTURES: Choose A, B, C or D which best completes the sentences. (1.2 pts) 5. We use a ............... to change the channels from a distance. A. TV schedule B. remote control C. newspaper D. programme 6. Nam is very ………….. . He plays badminton every day. A. sporty B. lazy C. helpful D. friendly 7. We should ………….. up rubbish in the classroom. A. pick B. litter C. save D. use 8. Yesterday, Nam …………….. his friend in the park. A. meets B. will meet C. met D. meeting 9. My house ……………….. a beautiful swimming pool and a big yard in the future. A. has B. is having C. will have D. had 10. If we …………… our forests, we will help our planet. A. protect B. protecting C. will protect D. protected B. READING (2.0 pts) I. Fill in each gap with a word from the box to complete the following passage. One word is not used. (1.0 pt) 8
  9. friendly boat visit stayed beautiful in Tom’s family visited Venice last year. The weather was fine with a clear blue sky and warm sunshine. They ……(11)…… in a small but convenient hotel during their trip, and they really enjoyed the beautiful city. They went sightseeing along the Grand Canal on a ……(12) ……. . Besides, they also visited the famous ancient landmarks there like The Doge’s Palace and Saint Mark’s Basilica. Those sites were so attractive. The food ……(13)…… Venice was rather expensive, so his parents decided to choose a small restaurant to enjoy some traditional Italian dishes like Baccala mantecato (creamed dried cod), risotto, pasta, etc. Tom took many ……(14)…… pictures of Venice and sent them to his friends. He hoped that next time they will ……(15)…… this palace together. II. Read the following text carefully and choose the correct answer A, B, or C for each of the gap. (1,0 pt) In the future, we will live in amazing new houses. Our houses will use the sun or the wind to make electricity. We won’t have cookers, dishwashers or washing machines. We will have robots to cook our dinner and wash our clothes. We will have robots to look after our children, and to feed our cats and dogs. We won’t use computers. We will have special remote control units. We can surf the Internet, send and receive e-mails and order food from the markets without getting out of bed. We won’t have TVs or CD players because we will have watches that play music, and take pictures. Our cars might not use gas. They might use energy from water or air. 16. What will we use to make electricity in the future? A. the sun or the wind B. water and air C. robots and computers 17. How many things will robots do to help us according to the text? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 18. Why won’t we have TVs or CD players in the future? A. Because we won’t like them. B. Because we don’t have enough money to buy them. C. Because we can use watches to play music or take pictures. 19. Which statement is NOT TRUE according to the text? A. Robots will help us to do housework. B. We use computer to order food. C. We can play music or take pictures by watches. 20. What does the word “They” in the last sentence of the text refer to? A. gas B. our cars C. watches C. WRITING (2.0 pts) I. Underline one mistake in each of the following sentences. (0.4 pt) 21. Last Sunday, Nam came to mine house and gave me a gift. A B C D 22. They studied very hard, but they got good marks last exam. A B C D 9
  10. II. Write questions to the underlined words/phrases. 23. They have some candy in their bag. => ……………………………………………………………………….. . ? 24. He went to school by bus yesterday. => …………………………………………………………………………. ? III. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences. (0.8 pt) 25. a/ beautiful/ What/ house/ => ……………………………………………………………………………. ! 26. house/ future/ on/ My/ island/ the/ is. => …………………………………………………………………………………. . IV. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0.8 pt) 27. Our/ class/ have/ big/ party/ last/ night. =>......................................................................................................................................... 28. If/ we/ reduce/ waste/ everyday/ we/ help/ environment. =>......................................................................................................................................... D. LISTENING (2.0pts) I. Listen and decide if the statements below are true (T) or false (F). (1.0pt) 29. Kenvin’s dream house will be by the beach. 30. Kenvin and his brother won’t have to share a room anymore in the house. 31. There will be a small television in his house. 32. There won’t be any robots in the house. 33. His mother will have to do all the housework in the house. II. Listen to two students talking about what they will do if they become the presidents of the 3Rs club then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions. (1.0pt) 34. What class is Mi in? A. 6A B. 6E C. 6C 35. If she becomes the president of the Club what will she do first? A. organize some book fairs B. exchange their used books C. putting a recycling bin 36. How will Nam feel if students get to school by bus? A. great B. surprised C. fun 37. Where can students can exchange used uniforms with other students? A. book fairs B. uniform fairs C. every classroom 38. Who wants to help the environment? A. nobody B. Nam and Mi C. their friends ................ THE END ............. TRƯỜNG ………………………………. ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II 10
  11. Họ và tên: ………………………………. NĂM HỌC 2022-2023 Lớp: …………. Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Dành cho HSKT) Điểm Nhận xét của giáo viên Đề: Em hãy chép lại đoạn hội thoại sau: Let’s go green Mi: Hi, Nick. Nick: Hello Mi. Mi: You've bought a lot of things. Nick: Yes. We're going on a picnic tomorrow. What are you doing at the supermarket, Mi? Mi: I'm buying some eggs. Hey, what's this? Nick: It's a reusable shopping bag. Mi: Do you always use it? Nick: Yes. It's better than a plastic one. If we use this kind of bag, we will help the environment. Mi: I see. I'll buy one for my mum. Where can I buy one? Nick: At the check-out. By the way, you're also green. You're cycling. 11
  12. PHÒNG GD&ĐT BẮC TRÀ MY HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN HUỆ Năm học: 2022 – 2023 Môn: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 6 A. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS TEST (2.0 ts) Mỗi câu đúng 0.2đ Câu 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Đáp án C D A D B A A C C A B. READING. (2,0 pts) I. Mỗi câu đúng 0.2 đ Câu 11 12 13 14 15 Đáp án stayed boat in beautiful visit II. Mỗi câu đúng 0.2 đ Câu 16 17 18 19 20 Đáp án A C C B B C. WRITING (2,0 pts) I. Mỗi câu đúng 0.2 đ Câu 21 22 Đáp án B B II. Mỗi câu đúng 0.2 đ 23. What do they have in their bag? 24. How did he go to school yesterday? III. Mỗi câu đúng 0.2 đ 25. What a beautiful house! 26. My future house is on the island. IV. Mỗi câu đúng 0.4 đ 27. Our class had a big party last night. 28. If we reduce watse everyday, we will help the environment. D. LISTENING(2,0 pts) I. Mỗi câu đúng 0.2đ Câu 29 30 31 32 33 Đáp án T T F F F II. Mỗi câu đúng 0.2đ Câu 34 35 36 37 38 Đáp án A C C B B 12
  13. PHÒNG GD&ĐT BẮC TRÀ MY HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ II TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN HUỆ Năm học: 2022 – 2023 Môn: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 6 (Dành cho HSKT) Tùy vào mức độ hoàn thành của HS mà GV ghi điểm phù hợp. 13
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