Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường PTDTBT THCS Trà Don, Nam Trà My

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường PTDTBT THCS Trà Don, Nam Trà My

UBND HUYỆN NAM TRÀ MY MA TRẬN KIỂM TRA CUỐI KÌ II - NĂM HỌC: 2023-2024 TRƯỜNG PTDTBT THCS TRÀ DON MÔN HỌC: TIẾNG ANH 6 THỜI GIAN: 60 PHÚT PARTS No. of Mar Task types Re Com Low App High Ques k App TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL 5 1.0 - Listen 1.0 and tick T/ F LISTE 5 1.0 - Listen NING and (2,0) circle 1,0 the best answer 2 0.4 Indicate 0,4 LANG the UAGE word COMP whose ONEN underlin T ed part (2,0) is pronoun ced different ly form the others Sounds: / ð/, / θ/;
sounds:/ e/, / æ/ Indicate the word which 2 0.4 0,4 has a different stress pattern. MCQs: Circle the best option. Words relating to 3 0,6 0,2 televisio 0,4 n, sports and games, our greener world. 3 0,6 MCQs: Circle 0.6 the best option: simple past tense, Simple future tense,
Conditi onal sentence type 1 Read the text and fill in the blank 5 1,0 0,6 0,4 (with suitable READI words NG from the (2,0) box) Read the text and 5 1,0 0,8 0,2 circle the best answer: 2 0,4 (Error WRITI identific NG ation) (2,0) Circle A, B, C or D which is 0,4 not correct in standard English 2 0,4 (Making 0,4 question
s) Write question s to the underlin ed words. 2 0,4 Rearran ge the words to make 0.4 meaning ful sentence s. 2 0,8 (Senten ce building ) Write complet e 0,8 sentence s from the words given. TOTAL(8,0) 38 8.0 3,8 2,4 1,0 0,8 SPEAK 2 0,4 Introduc 0,4 ING tion (2,0) 5 1,0 Topic speakin 0,2 0,6 0,2 g 3 0,6 Questio 0,4 0,2 ns and
Answer Grand Total 48 10,0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0) UBND ĐẶC TẢ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KÌ II - NĂM HỌC: 2023-2024 HUYỆN MÔN HỌC: TIẾNG ANH 6 NAM THỜI GIAN: 60 PHÚT TRÀ MY TRƯỜ NG PTDTB T THCS TRÀ DON PARTS CON No. of Mark Task Re Com Low High App TENTS Ques App
types TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL -Sen 1- - Listen 5: T/F about stateme Our nt house 5 1.0 1.0 in the future and tick T/F LISTE NING -Sen 6- - Listen (2,0) 10: about Choose Our the best greener answer world 5 1.0 10 for a then WH- circle questio the best n answer LANG Pronun 2 0.4 Indicat 0,4 UAGE ciation: e the COMP -Sen word ONEN 11: whose T sounds / underli (2,0) ð/, / θ/ ned -Sen part is 12: pronou sounds: nced /e/, / æ/ differen tly form the others
- Sen Indicat 13: e the stress word in which two- has a syllab differen le t stress words pattern. (noun s) - Sen 14: 2 0.4 0,4 stress in two- syllab le words (verb and adject ives ) - Vocabu 3 0,6 0,2 lary: -Sen MCQs: 0,4 15: 1 Circle noun the best about option televisi on -Sen 16: 1 adjectiv
e about sports and games -Sen 17: 1 verb about protecti ng environ ment. Gram 3 0,6 mar MCQs: 0,6 points: Circle -Sen the best 18: 1 option sentenc e about simple past tense -Sen 19: 1 sentenc e about simple future tense -Sen 20: 1 sentenc e about
conditi onal sentenc e type 1 READI -Sen NG 21: 1 (2,0) word about a verb (Cloze -Sen test) 22: 1 Read word the text about about a noun Cities -Sen of the 23: 1 world word and fill about a in the 5 1,0 0,6 0,4 preposit blank ion (with -Sen suitable 24: 1 words word from about the box) an (one adjectiv extra e adjectiv -Sen e given) 25: 1 word about a verb -Sen 5 1,0 ( Readi 0,8 26: ng
Choose compre the best hension answer ) Read for a the text WH- about questio Our n houses 0,2 - Sen in the 27: future Choose and the best circle answer the best for a answer WH- questio n -Sen 28: Choose the best answer for a WH- questio n -Sen 29: Find the NOT TRUE stateme nt. -Sen
30: What does the word “…” in the text refer to? -Sen (Error WRITI 31: 1 identifi NG sentenc cation) (2,0) e about Circle possess A, B, C ive or D adjectiv 2 0,4 which es. is not 0,4 -Sen correct 32: 1 in sentenc standar e about d conjunc English tions. -Sen 2 (Makin 33: 1 0,4 g 0,4 questio questio n with ns) “what” Write using questio simple ns to present the tense underli -Sen ned
34: 1 questio n with “how” word/p using hrase. simple past tense -Sen 35: 1 sentenc (Senten e about ce exclam buildin ation g) -Sen Rearra 36: 1 nge the 2 0,4 0,4 sentenc words e about to make future meanin houses gful using sentenc simple es. future tense. -Sen (Senten 37: 1 2 0,8 ce 0,8 sentenc buildin e about g) Write simple complet past e tense. sentenc -Sen es from 38: 1 the sentenc words
e about environ ment using conditi given. onal sentenc e type 1. TOTA 38 8.0 3,8 2,4 1,0 0,8 L(8,0) SPEAK - ING Introdu (2,0) ce persona l informa Introdu 2 0,4 0,4 tion ction (school, houses, family, hobby.. ) - 5 1,0 Topic 0,2 0,6 0,2 Rando speakin mly g take one vocab topic (Televis ion, Sports and
games, cities of the world, our houses in the future, our greener world) -5 minutes for prepara tion - Look at the pictures and answer the questio n “What is this?” -Spell one word - two vocabs in a situatio
n - Student points to the word from the teacher’ s explana tion - 3 0,6 Questio 0,4 0,2 Answer ns and three Answer questio s ns about one of the topics (Televis ion, Sports and games, cities of the world, our houses in the future, our
greener world) Grand Total 48 10,0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0)
UBND HUYỆN NAM TRÀ MY KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II - NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 TRƯỜNG PTDTBT THCS TRÀ DON Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 Họ và tên:……………………………… Thời gian: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Lớp: 6/…… SBD:…………………...... Chữ ký GT1 Chữ ký GT2 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ----- Điểm: Lời phê của giáo viên: Part A. LISTENING: (2,0 pts) I. Listen to Lan describing her future house. Decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will listen TWICE. (1pt) 1. Lan’s dream house will be huge. 2. Lan loves music. 3. There will be different machines in each room. 4. There will be a swimming pool for both adults and children. 5. Lan loves to have flowers on balconies. II. Listen to the interview with John Adams, a travel writer. Circle the best answer A, B or C. You will listen TWICE. (1pt) 6. How many countries has John been to?
A. 15 B. 50 C. 200 7. What does John say about Ha Noi? A. It has everything. B. Its nightlife is exciting. C. Its food is great. 8. What is John’s favourite city? A. New York B. Pagan C. Bangkok 9. John says Pagan is the best place to ___________. A. see historic temples B. meet people C. see the sunrise 10. What does John say about Angkor Wat?
A. It has more tourists than Pagan. B. It is the most impressive. C. It has more temples than Pagan. Part B. LANGUAGE - COMPONENTS (2.0 pts) : I. Choose the word which has a different sound in the part underlined. (0.4pts) 11. A. thing B. mouth C. teeth D. this 12. A. hat B. candle C. many D. captain II. Choose the word that has a different syllable stress position. (0.4pts) 13. A. answer B. believe C. rely D. alone 14. A. breakfast B. pepper C. hotel D. ticket III. Circle the letter A, B, C or D of the best answer to complete the following sentences. (1.2pts) 15. We use a __________ to change the channels from a distance. A. remote control B. TV schedule C. newspaper D. volume button 16. My ……………sport is basketball. A. healthy B. wealthy C. happy D. favorite 17. People should _______ noise. A. reuse B. reduce C. recycle D. use 18. I ________ an English course to improve all my skills. A. not joined B. joined C. did joined D. join 19._____you be in Rome tonight? A. Will B. Might C. May D. Maybe 20. If you don’t study hard, you ……………..the exam. A. will fail B. fail C. don’t fail D. won’t fail Part C: READING (2.0 pts) I. Read the text about “cities of the world” and fill in the blank (with suitable words from the box) (1pt) beautiful over like want festival There are two places in Vietnam I (21) ..................... to visit this summer: Hue City and Ha Long Bay. Hue is a city which is filled mostly by trees, so the weather here is very cool, fresh and quiet. However, it is not as busy and crowded as other cities in Vietnam. Each year, the city celebrates a very fantastic (22) ..................... to introduce Vietnamese traditional food, flowers, trees, kite flying and costumes. Hue attracts a lot of visitors every year to its ancient tombs, temples, and pagodas. The second place I’m planning to go is Ha Long Bay. It is in Quang Ninh province. It is about (23) .................... 100 kilometers from my house. It is really
a (24) ..................... landmark in Vietnam. It has many islands, caves and nice seafood. I (25) ..................... to take a boat ride to Tuan Chau island and sunbathe on the beach. Surely, when I visit both Hue and Ha Long Bay, I will take lots of photos. II. Read the text about “our house in the future” and circle the best answer. (1pt) A lovely house Peter lives in a house near the sea. It’s an old house, about 100 years old, and it’s very small. There are two bedrooms upstairs but no bathroom. The bathroom is downstairs next to the kitchen and there’s a living room where there is a lovely fireplace. There’s a garden in front of the house. The garden goes down to the beach and in spring and summer, there are flowers everywhere. Peter lives alone with his dog, Boxer, but “they” have a lot of visitors. Their city friends often stay with them. Peter loves his house for many reasons: the garden, the flowers in summer, the fire in winter, but the best thing is the view from his bedroom window. Peter is thinking of a new house in the future with the help of Robots. 26. Where is the house? A. Near the river B. near the mountain C. near the park D. near the sea 27. How many reasons does Peter love his house? A. Three B. four C. five D. six 28. Who often comes to stay with them? A. Their relatives B. their neighbors C. their city friends D. Their visitors 29. What sentence is NOT TRUE statement? A. Peter’s house is an old house. B. Peter’s house is about 100 years old. C. Peter’s house is very small. D. Peter’s house is quite big. 30. What does the word “ They” in line 5 refer to? A. flowers B . their visitors C. their city friends D. Peter and his dog Part D: WRITING (2pts) I. Circle A, B, C, or D which is not correct in standard English. (0.4pt) 31. She’s not his friend, she’s my A B C D 32. Some game shows are popular because I never watch them A B C D II. Write questions to the underlined word/phrase. (0.4pt) 33. They usually play basketball in their free time. …………………………………………………………. 34. I walked to school yesterday. …………………………………………………………. III. Rearrange the words to make meaningful sentences. (0.4pt)