Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Phan Tây Hồ, Phú Ninh

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“Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Phan Tây Hồ, Phú Ninh” được chia sẻ nhằm giúp các bạn học sinh ôn tập, làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi và các dạng bài tập có khả năng ra trong bài thi sắp tới. Cùng tham khảo và tải về đề thi này để ôn tập chuẩn bị cho kì thi sắp diễn ra nhé! Chúc các bạn thi tốt!

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Phan Tây Hồ, Phú Ninh

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO PHÚ NINH MATRIX FOR THE SECOND END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 6) TRƯỜNG THCS PHAN TÂY HỒ School year: 2023-2024 Time : 60’ No. of Com Low App High App PARTS Mark Task types Re Ques TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL Pronunciation: Indicate the word whose underlined part is 2 0.4 pronounced differently form the others 0,4 LANGUAGE COMPONENT 3 0,6 Vocabulary: MCQs: Circle the best option 0,2 0,4 (2,0) 5 1,0 Grammar: MCQs: Circle the best option 0,6 0,4 Passage 1: READING 5 1,0 0,8 0,2 Read the text and fill in the blank (with suitable words from the box) (2,0) Passage 2: 2 passages 5 1,0 0,6 0,4 - Read the text and circle the best answer 2 0,4 (Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in 0,4 standard English WRITING 4 0,8 (Sentence transformation) Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning (2,0) 0,8 keeps unchanged 2 0,8 (Sentence building) Write the sentences, using the prompts 0,8 LISTENING 5 1.0 - Listen and tick T or F 0,6 0,4 (2,0) 5 1.0 - Listen and choose the correct answers 0,4 0.6 2 tasks 2 0,4 Introduction: share something about …. ( 5 IDEAS) 0,4 SPEAKING 5 1,0 Topic speaking 0,2 0,8 (2,0) 3 0,6 Questions and Answer 0,4 0,2 Grand Total 48 10,0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0)
Phòng GDĐT PHU NINH Trường THCS PHAN TAY HO SPECIFICATION FOR THE SECOND END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 6) School year: 2023-2024 CONTENTS No. of Com Low App High App PARTS Mar Task types Re Ques k TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL Pronunciation: -Q 1: sounds ə/, /a Indicate the word whose 2 0.4 underlined part is pronounced 0,4 -Q 2: sounds /θ/, /ð/ differently form the others Vocabulary: -Q 3: word meaning (Unit 8) -Q 4: word meaning (Unit 10) 3 0,6 MCQs: Circle the best option 0,2 0,4 -Q 5: word meaning (Unit 11) LANGUAGE Grammar points: COMPONENT -Q 6: 1 sentence about first (2,0) conditional -Q 7: 1 sentence about article -Q 8: 1 sentence about past 0,4 simple 5 1,0 MCQs: Circle the best option 0,6 -Q 9: 1 sentence about conjunctions -Q 10: 1 sentence about the simple future -Q 11: 1 word about adjective (Cloze test) Read the text -Q 12: 1 word about partial READING about future house and fill in -Q 13: 1 word about verb 5 1,0 0,8 0,2 (2,0) the blank (with suitable -Q 14: 1 word about noun words from the box) -Q 15: 1 word about conjunction
-Q 16: Main idea - Q 17: Choose 1 sentence about right/ wrong information -Q 18: Choose the best answer (Reading comprehension) for a WH-question 5 1,0 Read the text about London 0,6 0,4 -Q 19: Choose the best answer and circle the best answer: for a Yes –No question -Q 20: What does the word “…” in the text refer to? -Q21: 1 sentence about (Error identification) Circle possessive adjectives 2 0,4 A, B, C or D which is not 0,4 -Q 22: 1 sentence about articles correct in standard English - Q23: -1 sentence about conjunctions -Q24: 1 sentence about possessive pronouns (Sentence transformation) -Q25: -1 sentence about making 4 0,8 Rewrite the sentences so as 0,8 WRITING Wh-question its meaning keeps unchanged (2,0) -Q26: -1 sentence about first conditional -Q 27: 1 sentence about Wh- questions -Q 28: 1 sentence about simple (Sentence building) Write future complete sentences from the 2 0,8 0,8 words given. -Q 29-33: T/F statement - Listen to a passage about 5 1.0 0,6 Singapore and tick T/F 0,4 LISTENING (2,0) -Q 34-38 : Choose the best - Listen to Nick and Linda 5 1.0 0,4 0,6 answer . talking about their dream
house and circle the best answer Introduction: share something 2 0.4 0.4 about …. ( 5 IDEAS) SPEAKING Topic speaking 5 1.0 0.2 0.8 (2,0) Questions and Answer 3 0.6 0.4 0.2 Grand Total 48 10 4.0 3.0 2.0 1.0 (10,0)
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 ( A ) I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0 POINTS) Part1. (0,4 pts) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 1. B 2. B. Part2. (1,6 pts) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. C 10.D II. READING (2,0 POINTS) Part1. (1,0 pt) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 11. tall 12. front 13. have 14. robots 15. and Part2 (1,0 pt) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 16. B 17. C. 18. B 19. A 20. B III. WRITING (2,0 POINTS) Part1. (0,4 pts) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 21. A. 22. C Part2. (0,8 pts) - Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 23. I like cartoon, but my brother likes game show. 24. That book is mine 25. When did he watch an exciting football match? 26. If we recycle more, we will help the Earth. Part3.(0,8 pts) - Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,4 điểm 27. How many hours a day does your brother play tennis ? 28. My uncle will travel on the Moon in a flying car in the future. IV. LISTENING (2,0 POINTS) Part1. (1,0 pt) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 29 . T 30. F 31. T 32. T 33. F Part2. (1,0 pt) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 34.A 35. C 36. B 37. A 38. C * Tùy theo mức độ đạt được của bài làm, giáo viên quyết định điểm cho phù hợp ở phần WRITING (Part 2 và Part 3) ---------------------HẾT--------------------
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 ( B ) I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0 POINTS) Part1. (0,4 pts) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 1. C 2. B Part2. (1,6 pts) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. B 10.A II. READING (2,0 POINTS) Part1. (1,0 pt) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 11. beautiful 12. behind 13. robots 14.and 15. receive Part2 (1,0 pt) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 16. C 17. B. 18. A 19. A. 20. C III. WRITING (2,0 POINTS) Part1. (0,4 pts) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 21. B 22. D Part2. (0,8 pts) - Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 23. My sister can play badminton , but she can’t play football 24. That pen is hers 25.When did she watch an exciting game show? 26. If we use these bottles, we’ll save a lot of money. Part3.(0,8 pts) - Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,4 điểm 27. How many times a week does your sister go shopping? 28. My uncle will travel on the Moon in a super car in the future IV. LISTENING (2,0 POINTS) Part1. (1,0 pt) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 29 . F 30. T 31. T 32. F 33. T Part2. (1,0 pt) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 34.C 35. B 36. A 37. D 38. B * Tùy theo mức độ đạt được của bài làm, giáo viên quyết định điểm cho phù hợp ở phần WRITING ( Part 2 và part 3) ---------------------HẾT-------------------- ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 ( KT) I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (8,0 POINTS) - Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 1.điểm 1.C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5.B 6.B 7. A 8. D
TRƯỜNG THCS PHAN TÂY HỒ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II - NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 6 Mã đề A (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề) (đề gồm có 3 trang) I. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (2.0 pts) Part 1:Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others (0.4 pt) 1. A. town B. snow C. crowded D. flower 2. A. thirsty B. weather C. anything D. theater Part 2:Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (1.6pts) 3. You should wear………...to protect your eyes when you swim. A. goggles B. a racket C.a ball D. a hat 4. I have a …………….. to keep food fresh A. computer B. electric cooker C. dishwasher D. fridge 5. Walking to school will help ...................air pollution. A. reuse B. refill C. reduce D. recycle 6. If the weather is sunny , we …………. on a picnic. A. will go B. go C. goes D. went 7. The Earth goes around …………. Sun . A. a B. the C. an D. Ø 8. Last summer, I …………my grandparents in HCM city. A visit B. visited C.visits D. visiting 9.He is tired, ………….he’ll go to bed early. A. and B. but C .so D. because 10. I …………at home tomorrow. A. stayed B. stay C stays D. will stay II.READING: (2.0pts) Part1: Read the text and fill in the blank with suitable words from the box. (1.0pt) robots and front tall have My future house will be on the ocean. It will be surrounded by (11) ……. trees and blue sea. There will be a swimming pool in (12)…… of and a large flowers garden behind the house. There will be a helicopter on the roof so that I can fly to school. My future house will (13)…… solar energy. There will be some (14)……………. in the house. They will help me do the housework, such as: cleaning the floors, cooking meals, washing clothes (15) ………. watering the flowers Part2:Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, or C. (1.0 pt) London is the capital city of England and one of the biggest cities in the world. It is located on the River Thames. It is a very famous city to visit .Tourists from all over the world can visit its castles, museums, gardens, theaters and cinemas. Some famous landmarks are the London Eye and the Big Ben,… There are many shops, so tourists can buy anything they want. The best thing about London is the park. There are 5 parks in the city center. They are ideal places for people to relax. 16. What is the passage about ? A. The Big Ben. B. London C. The River Thames. 17. Which sentence below is NOT TRUE according to the passage above? A. London is located on the River Thames.
B. London is one of the biggest city in the world. C. London isn’t a very famous city. 18. What are the famous landmarks in London? A. London Eye B. London Eye and the Big Ben C. The Big Ben 19. Are there many shops in London? A. Yes , there are B. Yes, there is C. No, there aren’t 20. What does the word “They” in line 5 refer to? A. museums B. parks C. gardens III. WRITING: (2.0pts) Part1:Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English. (0.4 pt) 21.Hers hometown is a very beautiful place. A B C D 22. I have a white hat and a orange shirt. A B C D Part2: Rewrite the sentences, using given words or doing as directed. (0.8 pt) 23.I like cartoon . My brother likes game show. (but) ………………………………………. 24. That book belongs to me.  That book ……………………………. 25.He watched an exciting football match yesterday.( Making Wh-question for the underlined part)  ……………………………………………… 26. We recycle more. We help the Earth.  If……………………………………….. Part3:Write complete sentences from the words given. (0.8 pt) 27. How many/ hours / day / your brother / play tennis ? …………………………………………………………… 28. My uncle / travel / the Moon / a flying car / the future. ……………………………………………………………….. IV. LISTENING (2.0pts) Part1:Listen and write True (T) or F (False) for each statement: (1pt) 29. Singapore is a small island city-state. ________ 30. Singapore attracts hundreds of tourists every year. ________ 31. A good way to see the city is by taking a hop-on hop-off bus. ________ 32. The tour around the city costs 35 dollars. ________ 33. There is a bus every 20 minutes. ________ Part2:Listen to Nick and Linda talking about their dream house and choose the correct answer: (1pts) 34. Where is Linda’s dream house? A. by the sea B. in the city C. in the mountain D. on the Moon 35. What is around Linda’s house? A. a swimming pool B. a garden C. a swimming pool and a garden D. a swimming pool and a yard 36. What is Nick’s dream house ? A. a big villa B. a beautiful flat C. a palace D. a small flat 37. Is there a park in front of Nick’s house? A. Yes, there is B. No, there isn’t C. Yes, there are D. No, there aren’t 38. What appliances does Nick’s house have? A. a wireless TV B. a smart clock C. a super smart TV D. a fridge
TRƯỜNG THCS PHAN TÂY HỒ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II - NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 Mã đề B MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 6 (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề) (đề gồm có 3 trang) I. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (2.0 pts) Part1:Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others (0.4 pt) 1. A. brown B. crowded C. snow D. town 2. A. thing B. that C. healthy D. thirsty Part 2:Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (1.6pts) 3. To protect your eyes, you should wear ……..when you swim. A. a racket B. a hat C. sports shoes D. goggles 4. I have a …………… help us to cook rice. A. computer B. electric cooker C. dishwasher D. fridge 5. Going to school by bike will help ...................air pollution. A. reuse B. refill C. recycle D. reduce 6. If the weather is fine, they …………. to the beach.. A. go B. will go C. goes D. went 7. ………Moon is bright tonight . A. Ø B. A C. The D. An 8. Last week, Nam …………his uncle in Nha Trang city. A visit B. visiting C.visits D. visited 9.She is tired, ……………she’ll go to bed early. A. and B.so C .but D. because 10. Lan …………at home tomorrow. A. will stay B. stay C stays D. stayed II.READING: (2.0pts) Part1: Read the text and fill in the blank with suitable words from the box. (1.0pt) robots and receive behind beautiful My future house will be on an island. It will be surrounded by ( 11)……… trees and the blue sea. There will be a big garden (12)……….the house. There will be some (13)………… in the house. They will help me to clean the floor, cook meals, wash clothes and water the flowers. They will also help me to feed the dogs (14) ………… cats. There will be a super smart TV. It will help me to send and (15)……..emails. It will also help me to buy food from the supermarket. Part2:Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, or C. (1.0 pt) London is the capital city of England and one of the biggest cities in the world. It is located on the
River Thames. It is a very famous city to visit .Tourists from all over the world can visit its castles, museums, gardens, theaters and cinemas. Some famous landmarks are the London Eye and the Big Ben,… There are many shops, so tourists can buy anything they want. The best thing about London is the park. There are 5 parks in the city center. They are ideal places for people to relax. 16. What is the passage about ? A. The Big Ben. B. The River Thames. C. London 17. Which sentence below is TRUE according to the passage above? A. London isn’t located on the River Thames. B. London is one of the biggest city in the world. C. London doesn’t have any famous landmarks. 18. What are the famous landmarks in London? A. London Eye and the Big Ben B. London Eye C. The Big Ben 19. Are there 5 parks in the city center? A. Yes , there are B. Yes, there is C. No, there aren’t 20. What does the word “They” in line 5 refer to? A. cinemas B. theaters C. parks III. WRITING: (2.0pts) Part1:Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English. (0.4 pt) 21.She loves cartoons. Hers favourite cartoon is Tom and Jerry. A B C D 22. I have a cat and my brother has an dog . A B C D Part2: Rewrite the sentences, using given words or doing as directed. (0.8 pt) 23.My sister can play badminton. She can’t play football (but) ………………………………………. 24. That pen belongs to her.  That pen ……………………………. 25.She watched an exciting game show last week . .( Making Wh-question for the underlined part)  ……………………………………………… 26. We reuse these bottles. We save a lot of money.  If……………………………………….. Part3:Write complete sentences from the words given. (0.8 pt) 27. How many / times / week / your sister / go shopping ? …………………………………………………………… 28. My father / travel / the Moon / a super car / the future. ……………………………………………………………….. IV. LISTENING (2.0pts) Part1:Listen and write True (T) or F (False) for each statement: (1pt) 29. Singapore is a big island city-state. ________ 30. Singapore attracts millions of tourists every year. ________ 31. A good way to see the city is by taking a hop-on hop-off bus. ________ 32. The tour around the city costs 45 dollars. ________ 33. There is a bus every 30 minutes. ________ Part2:Listen to Nick and Linda talking about their dream house and choose the correct answer: (1pts) 34. Where is Linda’s dream house? A. in the mountain B. in the city C. by the sea D. on the Moon 35. What is around Linda’s house?
A. a swimming pool B. a swimming pool and a garden C. a garden D. a swimming pool and a yard 36. What is Nick’s dream house ? A. a beautiful flat B. a big villa C. a small flat D. a palace 37. Is there a park in front of Nick’s house? A. No, there aren’t B. No, there isn’t C. Yes, there are D. Yes, there is 38. What appliances does Nick’s house have? A. a fridge B. a super smart TV C. a smart clock D. a wireless TV TRƯỜNG THCS PHAN TÂY HỒ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ II - NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 6 (đề gồm có 2 trang) (Thời gian làm bài: phút, không kể thời gian giao đề) VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (8.0 pts) Circle the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (6pts) 1. My name ………… Quan A. are B. am C. is D. are not 2. Duong can play ……………... A. badminton B. football C. tennis D. table tennis 3.This is my …………………….. A. ball B. racket C. sports shoes D. boat 4.I have a …………… help us to cook rice. A. computer B. electric cooker C. dishwasher D. fridge 5. My father is ......... doctor.
A. Ø B. a C. an D. the 6.She is tired, ……………she’ll go to bed early. A. and B.so C .but D. because 7. Lan …………at home tomorrow. A. will stay B. stay C stays D. stayed 8. Last week, Nam …………his uncle in Nha Trang city. A visit B. visiting C.visits D. Visited Duyệt đề của BGH Người duyệt đề Người ra đề Nguyễn Thị Thu Thủy