Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2022-2023 có đáp án (Vòng 1) - Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Bình

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2022-2023 có đáp án (Vòng 1) - Sở GD&ĐT Quảng Bình

SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG BÌNH KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 20222023 Khóa ngày 20 tháng 9 năm 2022 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH BÀI THI THỨ NHẤT Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) SỐ BÁO DANH:…………… Đề gồm có 12 trang Lưu ý: Thí sinh làm bài trên tờ giấy thi I. LISTENING (50/200 points) HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU Bài nghe gồm 4 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây; mở đầu mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh đã có trong đề bài nghe. Part 1. For questions 15, listen to a piece of news about “How to save love from pessimism” and decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F), or Not given (NG). 1. Despite being pessimistic about many aspects of life, everyone is optimistic about loveseeking. 2. The first impression about a possible partner is sometimes deceptive. 3. There are no perfect beings that actually exist in real life. 4. A couple need to be compatible with each other in order to have a great relationship. 5. It is necessary to see somebody die to be able to love probably. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Part 2. For questions 610, listen to a talk about the future of fashion and answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer. 6. What is capable of forecasting fashion trends with high precision? ...................................................................................................................................................... 7. As evidenced by H&M's unsold clothes, what could have untold repercussions? ...................................................................................................................................................... 8. Besides superfluous production, what aspect of fashion could be diminished thanks to the adoption of machine learning? ...................................................................................................................................................... 9. To create new clothes, what will Amazon’s AI designer be doing aside from duplicating wellknown styles? ...................................................................................................................................................... 10. What is the ZOZO? ...................................................................................................................................................... Part 3. You will hear a conversation between Monica and Joseph about the “buy nothing” day. For questions 1115, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. 11. What is Joseph’s thought on shopping? A. Shopping is the most lucrative industry for businesses. B. Shopping supports the nation’s economy. C. Shopping guides people towards honest deeds. D. Shopping is the favorite pastime for most people. 1
12. What does Monica say about shopping? A. People feel the need to shop for a variety of reasons. B. Shopping experiences need to be redefined. C. Compulsive shopping does not make financial sense. D. Personal needs remain the top priority as far as a buying decision is made. 13. What does Joseph suggest about his spending habit? A. He spends money wisely because he understands the value of money. B. He is mistakenly branded a spendthrift. C. He is not as stingy as people might think. D. He spends freely on himself and others. 14. Monica gives the advice that when shopping, we should A. give more priority to products made by women and children. B. calculate the impact our consumption makes on the environment. C. be informed of the circumstances under which our purchases are manufactured. D. make sure that the goods we buy are still in usable conditions. 15. At the end of the discussion, Monica and Joseph agree that A. they will spend the next day windowshopping. B. Joseph should do shopping on alternate days. C. it is impossible to change Joseph’s shopping habits. D. one day without shopping is worth a try. Your answers: 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. Part 4. For questions 1625, listen to a talk on the effects of sleep deprivation and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer. In an experiment in 1965, Randy Garder didn’t sleep for 11 days, which resulted in his inability to focus his eyes and his lost sense of touch on the second day. The following day saw him (16) __________________. He encountered various health issues by the last day, including the onset of (17) _____________________. Sleep is influenced by both biological and environmental signals. The nonREM sleep in which our body recharges itself is the result of an increase in (18) ______________________. Rather than being a (19) ______________________, sleep deprivation causes adverse bodily damage. People who lose sleep may suffer from physical problems such as high blood pressure, diabetes, obesity and (20) _________________; and mental poblems such as cognitive impairment and unreal sensory experiences. A minority of the world’s population are the victim of a rare genetic disorder called (21) _____________________which results in sleeping problems. During waking hours, the accumulated amount of adenosine, a byproduct of daily energy sources induces huge sleep pressure. In fact, caffeine could inhibit adenosine’s (22) _________________, keeping us awake. Other byproducts also need clearance, otherwise, they overwhelm our brain and beget sleep deprivation. When a person is sleeping, the glymphatic system, a (23) ________________, counters the buildup of waste products by removing toxic waste with cerebrospinal fluids. (24)_________________, which act as the channels transporting immune cells, also aid in the removal of the brain's daily waste products. While the restorative mechanisms behind sleep should be further investigated, falling into (25)____________________ remains the best option to preserve our wellbeing. 2
II. LEXICOGRAMMAR (25/200 points) Part 1. For questions 2645, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following questions. 26. The new company had been _______ with one problem after another and looked as if it were about to go under. A. glorified B. tainted C. fraught D. bewildered 27. One of the most powerful pressure groups in the country is the road and car _______, which opposes any legislation that will increase taxes specifically for them. A. branch B. folder C. segment D. lobby 28. Unfortunately, his report doesn't _______ with what we've learnt from other sources. A. pally B. rally C. tally D. ally 29. The princess's nanny's autobiography really gives the _______ on life among the royals. A. showdown B. knowhow C. lowdown D. lookout 30. His energy and optimism were a tribute, perhaps, to the ______ life he advocated. A. deleterious B. abstemious C. amorphous D. deciduous 31. The choreographer _______his fingers in time to the music so that the dancers could pick up the tempo. A. clenched B. snapped C. nudged D. beckoned 32. The shop wasn’t making much of a profit so in order to attract more customers, the owner ________some of the prices. A. shelled out B. sold out C. marked down D. stocked up 33. Closure of schools took place _______falling numbers of pupils. A. in the context of B. with regard to C. with a concern for D. in consideration of 34. I decided to lend my brother some money to _________ until he could find himself a job. A. pull him over B. tide him over C. get him by D. put him up 35. The football club decided to _______ the team with a couple of worldclass players. A. beef up B. butter up C. dredge up D. drum up 36. The party of tourists ________ two hours late, dressed up in ball gowns. A. rocked up B. worked up C. popped up D. flocked up 37. When the events involve people close to you, it’s very difficult to be objective and report the news ________. A. meteorically B. impartially C. proverbially D. emphatically 38. Only the most basic and essential facts are required, stop adding more information, you are making _____ of the presentation, Emily! A. a song B. a meal C. a dish D. a scale 39. He called the success a(n) _____ of his party's freemarket economic policy. A. testimonial B. acclaim C. testament D. vindication 40. Sex is probably the most popular pastime in the history of life on Earth which makes it all the more ridiculous that so many of us have such a _____ way of talking about it. A. tightfisted B. mealymouthed C. thickskinned D. lightfingered 41. The needs of today's children cannot be met by the traditional _____ of education we’re using, in which emphasis is placed solely on theoretical knowledge. A. prototype B. paradigm C. emblem D. epitome 42. Performance ________ is one basic issue of human resource development and management in an enterprise to evaluate an employee’s productivity and capability. A. appraisal B. judgment C. remuneration D. assessment 43. I am a doctor so I know what to do, please mind your own business and stop ________ on my toes. A. stepping B. pinning C. treading D. rueing 44. Steve used to be easy to work with, but since his promotion he’s begun to________. A. throw his weight around B. throw in the towel C. throw him off balance D. throw a monkey wrench in the works 45. One of the defendants ________ and was on the run until his arrest. A. jumped bail B. made bail C. stood bail D. posted bail Your answers 3
26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. Part 2. For questions 4650, write the correct form of each bracketed word. 46. Sleeping during day and working when night comes sounds seemingly ______. (SCIENCE) 47. He was regarded as a____ winner as he beat his opponents in three straight sets. (RUN) 48. I cannot imagine why there are such _____ people in this world. Don’t they feel (HEART) any sympathy for the homeless? 49. Membership talks were launched in 2005, but progress has been slow, as several (GIVE) EU states have serious ________ about Turkish EU membership. 50. He talked with the _____ authority of the head of the family. (MAGISTRATE) Your answers 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. III. READING (70/200 points) Part 1. For questions 5160, read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. The Bwindi Impenetrable Forest in Uganda is impenetrable in more ways than (51) _______. Not only is it nigh on impossible for visitors to trek through the thick undergrowth in their quest to spot the famed guerrilla inhabitants of the area. (52) _______literally can the forest's former residents, the Batwa pygmy people, penetrate it at all. Strictly (53) _______ of course, the dense foliage does not prevent tourists from going in (54) _______ of the great apes which dwell there; it just severely encumbers them as they trek. However, notwithstanding the difficulty encountered as soon as they enter the leafy habitat, (55) _______ in mind that at least they can access this magical place. Entry is not an option afforded any longer to its original human inhabitants, the Batwa or Twa people. The Batwa were evicted from the land in 1992 based on the Ugandan government’s desire to make it exclusively a guerrilla reserve great for the ape inhabitants, yet you can't help (56) _______ wonder how fair that was on the Batwa. They appear to have got the (57) _______ to say the least, receiving little compensation on account of hot being official landowners (58) _______ their traditional nomadic way of life. Since that time, they have been in a neverending struggle for their very existence. They cannot afford to (59) _______ big and dream of a very cosy, rich lifestyle. Instead, they want only (60) _______ which everyone deserves a decent existence. Your answers: 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. Part 2. For questions 6173, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. Conservation Strategies A. Although estimates vary, it is believed that approximately 900 different animal species have died out in the last 500 years. A further 35,000 species are officially recorded as at risk of extinction, though this is unquestionably an underrepresentation of the true number under threat. The survival chances of only a tiny proportion of the world's wildlife have been assessed, so it's highly likely that far more species are at risk of dying out. In fact, estimates on the true number vary enormously but range from 10 million to almost 50 million. Experts have also calculated that 25% of the world's mammals are under 4
threat, and 40% of amphibians are endangered. Such statistics are undoubtedly alarming. However, numbers alone are not enough to highlight the seriousness of the issue, or the solutions. B. Of course, it's important to distinguish between cases of preventable animal extinction and extinction that occurs due to natural evolutionary reasons. Somewhere between 90% and 99% of all the species that have ever existed have died out. Many species gradually disappear when they are unable to adapt to changing circumstances such as availability of food or the appearance of new predators. In these cases, other species evolve to fill the vacant role. The Earth's ecosystems are complex networks of living things, in which animals, plants and waterways are dependent on one another. Natural extinction helps to maintain the planet's delicate ecological balance. C. When left undisturbed, nature finds a way to restore itself. However, the natural balance of the world's ecosystems is changing, leading to significant biodiversity loss. Construction, tourism, mining, manufacturing and other aspects of human life are responsible for much of the environmental destruction we see in the world nowadays. Such activities directly lead to the loss of natural habitats, increase pollution and soil erosion, and also play a major role in climate change. All of this is having a disastrous impact on the planet's wildlife. Species are disappearing at rates estimated to be between 1,000 and 10,000 higher than rates of natural extinction. There's no doubt that humans have a disproportionately negative impact on the world. What's less clear is how best to resolve this. D. Wildlife management is far from straightforward, especially given the fact that it requires vast financial resources. To put this in context, it has been estimated that it costs over a million dollars a year to save just one single species of condor bird native to one particular area of North America. Since there are currently fewer than four hundred of these endangered condors in existence, saving each one comes at a cost of over $2,500 a year. With this in mind, wildlife management often involves weighing up competing environmental needs, and making painful strategic decisions to prioritise some species over others. The factors influencing such decisions are extremely complex, and often controversial. E. In recent years, the concept of "conservation triage" has gained increasing attention. This involves leaving some species to face extinction in order to allocate more resources to species with a greater chance of survival, or which are perceived to be more important in some way. Conservation triage recognises that it makes sense to invest our limited resources in species that will have the best environmental outcomes. However, there is no accepted formula to evaluate the relative merits of saving one species over another. The lack of consensus regarding which species should be prioritised means that wildlife agencies often adopt differing approaches when it comes to conservation efforts. F. Some conservation strategies focus entirely on "flagship" species. These are animals promoted as icons to raise public awareness of environmental issues. They are selected on the basis that they are commonly regarded as attractive or charismatic, and therefore valued in society. For instance, the possibility that the beloved giant panda may become extinct has highlighted the importance of protecting natural habitats and having tighter controls against deforestation. However, while cute animals may generate public sympathy, there is little evidence that this leads to significant environmental gains. In fact, if images of flagship species appear too often in marketing, the public may even assume they are no longer endangered. G. Although flagship species may be "cute", the arguments for alternative approaches are more compelling. It surely makes more sense to prioritise species which make the greatest overall contribution to nature, regardless of whether they are perceived to be attractive. Keystone species perform essential functions in ecosystems. For instance, elephants in the wild clear pathways for small animals. Insects and 5
bees are essential for the pollination and dispersal of tree and plant seeds. Should keystone species disappear, the survival of all the forms of life in that environment would be at risk. Likewise, indicator species are vital as they provide valuable information about the condition of natural habitats. Some types of crayfish are used as indicator species. By monitoring crayfish populations, ecologists can understand more about the overall condition of our waterways. This clearly highlights the need for a pragmatic rather than a sentimental approach to conservation. Questions 6167. Reading passage has 7 sections, AG. Choose the correct headings for sections AG from the list of headings below. List of headings i Helpful species ii Humanity’s ecological footprint iii The complexity of conservation iv The extent of the problem v Ranking species vi Species as symbols vii The failure of wildlife conservation viii A natural phenomenon 61. Section A ________ 62. Section B ________ 63. Section C ________ 64. Section D ________ 65. Section E ________ 66. Section F ________ 67. Section G ________ Questions 6873 Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage? TRUE if the statement agrees with the information. FALSE if the statement contradicts the information. NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this. 68. It is estimated that around 75,000 species are on the verge of extinction. 69. Many species have naturally died out for the sake of the planet. 70. The Earth’s natural environment has been damaged beyond repair. 71. The condor bird is an example of a creature that has been prioritised in conservation. 72. Efforts to save ‘flagships’ species via marketing can become counterproductive. 73. The author concludes that both emotional and practical arguments should be taken into account when conducting conservation campaigns. Your answers 6
61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. Part 3. In the passage below, seven paragraphs have been removed. For questions 7480, read the passage and choose from the paragraphs AH the one which fits each gap. There is ONE extra paragraph which you do not need to use. Nigel Short It seems a very long way away from the little village where the subject of my interview was born. I am interviewing him on the terrace overlooking the garden of his rambling house in southern Greece. The early evening sun beats down and the Mediterranean shimmers in the distance. The life of a professional chess player is an arduous one. 74. Short is now forty and, as in all sports, anno Domini takes its toll. He is down to thirtieth in the world grandmasters are precisely, mercilessly even, graded according to their performance, and Short has slipped below all those hungry young Russians, Ukrainians and Armenians looking for their own place in the sun. He still loves lives for the game, the adrenaline rush of competition, but realises he will never again make the top ten. 75. Not that everyone, hitherto, has quite appreciated the appeal. Chess as an international sport gets tucked away in tiny paragraphs in the press, and the world's leading players remain nothing more than exotic names. 76. But he has an even harder task, which is why I have turned up in Greece to wreck his family's summer holiday. He has to try to teach me to play well. I have been playing chess for almost forty years, and I am still truly hopeless. Turning me into a strong player will, he admits, be his greatest challenge. My chess credentials are ropey. I learned the game at eleven, then played for my school but always on lower boards to avoid strong opponents, and came third in Newport undereighteen championship (my sole chess prize). Now I play endless lowgrade chess on the internet, against unnamed amnesiacs all around the world. I am not promising material. 77. Short has lived and breathed chess since the age of six, when his father showed him the moves. He beat the great Viktor Korchnoi in a simultaneous exhibition at the age of ten, played in the British championship at twelve (defeating the ten times British champion Jonathan Penrose), beat grandmaster Tony Miles at fourteen and became a grandmaster himself at nineteen. 78. Chess is a very demanding mistress. It requires a colossal amount of time. If you are to study chess seriously, the amount of work is endless, and I got some sense of that this afternoon. We had been looking at a chess website detailing all the elite games that had been played worldwide in the past week 2,500 of them, anyone of which might contain some important opening innovation. 'Even if you just cast your eye over these things, spend three minutes on each.' He laughs and leaves the implication hanging, but I calculate later that spending three minutes studying each of those games would take 125 hours a week. 7
79. The 1993 match against Kasparov was a watershed for Short, and he never quite climbed those heights again. 'Getting to the world championship final was probably about as good as I could manage,' he says. 'It's difficult to motivate yourself and it becomes selffulfilling. You think, "Well, maybe if I work very, very hard again, I can do exactly the same again and then lose to Kasparov." It's a depressing feeling.' 80. Fide organised a rival final between the two players beaten by Short in previous rounds, and world chess has since endured a boxingstyle split, with at least two players claiming to be world champion. It's a mess, but there are hopes that over the next twelve months the world title will be reunified, starting with the Fide world championship tournament being played in Argentina from September 27 to October 16. Short will be at that eightplayer championship as commentator rather than player the poacher turned gamekeeper. The paragraphs A But if short will be playing less chess, he will instead be commentating more and evangelising on behalf of a sport that has lost its way in recent years. He will be writing a weekly column and occasional longer articles on the characters who populate the fascinating world of chess. B Short's career was dominated by his rivalry with Garry Kasparov, the player with the highest rating of all time. They met as juniors, then as grandmasters, and finally in the 1993 world championship. Kasparov came out on top in 1993, as he usually had. 'I had him on the ropes in several games,' recalls Short, 'but he was incredibly tenacious. He suffered in a lot of the games, but because of his resilience I was not able to put him out. I discovered there was more to his genius than just his opening preparation, though that is one of his great strengths.' C Short knows it, too. Chess is inherently a difficult game, he cautions me, and there aren't any very easy answers. You often find in the course of chess development that you have to unlearn what you have already learned, and take a step backwards in order to move forwards. D Actually, it is a continuous round of cheap hotels and cutthroat tournaments for not much prize money. Like the game itself, it is a constant battle for survival, but Nigel Short has been lucky. He has been lucky because he is good. Once rated third in the world, he challenged Garry Kasparov for the world championship in 1993 in a match, played in London, that briefly got chess onto live national television. E He is optimistic about the future of the sport. 'If, and when, some new people come in who are more businessminded, I think chess will take off again,' he says. 'Chess has huge advantages over many other sports in that it is played all over the world. It's a game for the internet age, a game where I can be sitting here in a village with goats and chickens and donkeys, and I can go on the internet and be playing some leading grandmaster in Russia or the Philippines.' F Until the alltoo mortal nature of the struggle over the chessboard is communicated, chess will continue to be jammed, in tiny print, between bowls and darts. That will be Short's demanding job to make chess come alive. G He never wanted to be anything else other than a professional chess player. 'As soon as I knew that professional players existed, I wanted to be one,' he says. 'I loved the game and wanted to devote myself to it.' H The ShortKasparov match was also a watershed for world chess, creating a schism that has still not been healed. The two protagonists fell out with FIDE, the sport's world governing body, over money, and organised the final themselves, with a purse of 1.7 million pounds. 8
Your answers 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. Part 4. You are going to read an article about lion society and breeding. For questions 81–90, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text. Super memorisers There are people in this world who are innately possessed of an ability to remember things with quite an extraordinary degree of detail and exactness. These super memorisers, as they are known, typically possess a brain naturally and distinctively wired to maximize its memorizing potential. They are gifted such that they require no particular training or effort to sharpen their memories; they remember things just as effortlessly as most people forget them. Few of us are born with such gifts, sadly, but there is much cause for optimism yet for those looking to improve their brain’s performance tangibly in this area; a fact which Boris Konrad is testament to. Konrad is a champion memoriser who, in winning gold in the German Memory Championships one year recognized and recalled the names of 195 people in just fifteen minutes. [■] His powers of recollection, then, are as admirable as they are undisputed, but Konrad is selftrained and started out with a recall capacity that was unremarkable. [■] Instead, he spent years developing memory strategies and employing those strategies to improve in the area through practice and dedication. [■] He, then, is a living proof that the average Joe with a gift for forgetfulness can reinvent himself in the area. [■]However, his example is as much a reminder of the extent of devotion that is required to reach this level as it is of the possibilities if one is prepared to put in the effort, and there are not many people prepared to expend a similar level of effort to this end, which is what really makes Konrad unique. That said, whilst you may not become a super memoriser overnight, new research suggests that it is possible to tangibly improve your memory in a relatively short space of time by devoting roughly half an hour of your every day to the process. It is necessary to learn and employ memorizing strategies such as the Memory Palace technique Konrad uses, though, to yield such results; otherwise, you might be as well be doing something else. In one recent study, for example, participants spent one month training their memories in the aforementioned technique for 30 minutes every day, which more than doubled their ability to remember list of information after just 40 days. More impressively, recall performance remained high whether or not training continued at the end of one month, which suggests after rewiring of the brain can be permanent. Even innately gifted memorisers use such mnemonic techniques to enhance their recall ability, and, of the recall methods which exist, the methods of loci, which has already been referred to here as the Memory Palace method, is the most prevalent one adopted as revealed by a recent study of 35 memory champions. Indeed, at a more rudimentary level, this method has been employed by orators and others required to remember long strings of interconnected information for some time, and it actually dates back to Ancient Greece, where it was first conceived of, remaining prevalent right through to the Middle Ages and the Renaissance. It is only a new method then, today, in the sense that the skill had been lost as such to most people for a very long time. Indeed, many of today’s super memorisers employed it intuitively rather than in a conscious effort to enhance their recall powers. Participants in the study was separated into three distinct groups, with one group receiving no memory training whatsoever and making no notable recall gains during the process. The second group dedicated time and effort to upping their recall capacity, but employed an everyday technique. However, those using the Memory Palate technique more than doubled their initial recall capacity by the process’s end. What’s more, their brain functions actually changed and their brain patterns began to bear more of a likeness to those of innate super memorisers, leading researchers to speculate that a total rewire might well be possible over time, such that a normal individual’s recall capacity could match that of any memory champion. The conclusion, therefore, was that memory is not necessarily an innately bestowed 9
gift you either are possessed of or not. Most of us have the potential to hone and expand our memories very meaningfully indeed. 81. According to the first paragraph, people with marvelous power of retention usually A. undergo rigorous practice to become that way. B. demonstrate brain functions resembling anyone else. C. throw in little effort to commit things to memory. D. be tangibly more intelligent than other people. 82. Why are Konrad’s achievements mentioned in paragraph two? A. To underline the excellence of inborn super memorisers B. To demonstrate the disparity between laymen and super memorisers C. To prove that almost every individual can make a significant enhancement in their retention powers D. To show how even innate super memorisers have to exert themselves 83. What does the writer mean in the phrase ‘you might as well be doing something else’ in paragraph three? A. It is futile to invest time in improving recall capacity. B. People should concentrate on their strengths. C. The Memory Palace technique is not universally suitable. D. Progress is only visible if you train in the right way. 84. What did the study mentioned in paragraph three conclude? A. The implication of moderate brain exercises can be enduring. B. The maintenance of a decent recall capacity requires continuous training. C. Your recall ability can more than double within one month. D. Progress is only noticeable with at least 30 minutes spent on brain training. 85. What do we learn about the method of loci? A. It is superior to the Memory Palace method. B. Most skillful memorisers purposefully adopt it. C. It has evolved from methods first employed in Ancient Greece. D. It has been widely used among super memorisers. 86. What did the results of the study mentioned in the final paragraph reveal? A. How the brains of super memorisers function is inimitable. B. The application of appropriate technique exerts a tremendous influence on the brain. C. Memory training is futile unless employing a confirmed technique. D. Most super memorisers are not talented at memorizing at birth. 87. The word "mnemonic techniques” in paragraph four mostly means A. gimmicks used to improve brain functions. B. endowed talents of super memorisers. C. tips specifically designed to aid the process of retaining information. D. skills adopted by super memorisers to avoid absentmindedness. 88. Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage. Indeed, after just 30 seconds, examination, he is able to retain the order of an entire deck of cards. Where would the sentence best fit? A. First square B. Second square C. Third square D. Fourth square 89. The word "orators” in paragraph 4 mostly means A. language experts B. body language experts C. oral students D. proficient speakers 90. The paragraph following the passage would most probably discuss A. further research into the workings of brains of super memorisers. 10
B. the defeat of a normal person over a super memoriser in terms of recalling capacity. C. potential ways to expand our power of retention. D. the popularity of memory palace technique. Your answers 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. Part 5. The passage below consists of four paragraphs marked A, B, C and D. For questions 91100, read the passage and do the task that follows. Against the Grain (A) The LSE In Against the Grain, A Deep History of the Earliest States, James C. Scott contributes to his longstanding intellectual project of reevaluating the role of the state in political thought by looking at the development of the early agrarian states to challenge narratives of progress founded on state formation. While acknowledging that a number of objections can be raised against the historical claims of the book, Alex Sager praises it for encouraging vital critical interrogation of the supposed inevitability and neutrality of state institutions today. He is not a primitivist, advocating a return to hunting and gathering. And given that these objections are obvious, he must be up to something else. Against the Grain invites us to critically appraise our institutions. The rise of the state and its appetite for natural resources central to fuelling statecentric conceptions of development or progress continues to be devastating for indigenous peoples and uncontacted tribes. The continued bias toward sedentary lifestyles parallels the 'determined resistance by mobile peoples everywhere to permanent settlement, even under relatively favorable circumstance'. State persecution of nomads continues today, targeting mobile groups such as the Roma and the UK traveller community as well as refugees and other migrants. Against the Grain does not call for the rejection of the state, but rather its reexamination. In this, it brilliantly succeeds. (B) Good Reads In Against the Grain: A Deep History of the Earliest States, James C. Scott, a professor of political science at Yale, presents a plausible contender for the most important piece of technology in the history of man. It is a technology so old that it predates Homo sapiens and instead should be credited to our ancestor Homo erectus. That technology is fire. We have used it in two crucial, defining ways. The first and the most obvious of these is cooking. As Richard Wrangham has argued in his book Catching Fire, our ability to cook allows us to extract more energy from the food we eat, and also to eat a far wider range of foods. Our closest animal relative, the chimpanzee, has a colon three times as large as ours, because its diet of raw food is so much harder to digest. The extra caloric value we get from cooked food allowed us to develop our big brains, something that was not believed to be the case till recent research, which absorb roughly a fifth of the energy we consume, as opposed to less than a tenth for most mammals' brains. That difference is what has made us the dominant species on the planet. (C) London Book Review When our ancestors began to control fire, most likely somewhere in Africa around 400,000 years ago, the planet was set on a new course. We have little idea and even less evidence of how early humans made fire, but perhaps they carried around smouldering bundles of leaves from forest fires, or captured the sparks thrown off when chipping stone or rubbing sticks together. However it happened, the human control of fire made an indelible mark on the earth's ecosystems, and marked the beginning of the Anthropocene the epoch in which humans have had a significant impact on the planet. According to Scott in Against the Grain, the period of early states was the Golden Age for the barbarians. They could prey on a state as if it were just another resource for hunting or harvesting. In Scott's picture, the barbarians and the citystates were entirely dependent on each other for their existence. They rose and 11
fell together: the Huns and the Romans; the 'Sea People' and the Egyptians. And for the vast part of recorded history the majority of people lived in the barbarian world. Scott's view is that the barbarian Golden Age ended as recently as four hundred years ago, when the power of the state finally became overwhelming, partly due to the invention of durable gunpowder. Which is, of course, a means to make fire sparked by flint a return to the 'moment' 400,000 years earlier which marked the beginning not of the steady rise of civilisation, but rather the muddled and messy affair that is the human past. (D) Yale University Press An account of all the new and surprising evidence now available for the beginnings of the earliest civilizations that contradict the standard narrative 'Why did humans abandon hunting and gathering for sedentary communities dependent on livestock and cereal grains, and governed by precursors of today's states?' Most people believe that plant and animal domestication allowed humans, finally, to settle down and form agricultural villages, towns, and states, which made possible civilization, law, public order, and a presumably secure way of living. But archaeological and historical evidence challenges this narrative. The first agrarian states, says James C. Scott in Against the Grain, were born of accumulations of domestications: first fire, then plants, livestock, subjects of the state, captives, and finally women in the patriarchal family; all of which can be viewed as a way of gaining control over reproduction. Scott explores why we avoided sedentism and plow agriculture, the advantages of mobile subsistence, the unforeseeable disease epidemics arising from crowding plants, animals, and grain, and why all early states are based on millets and cereal grains and unfree labor. He also discusses the 'barbarians' who long evaded state control, as a way of understanding continuing tension between states and nonsubject peoples. Which text Your answers negates mentioning the effect new evidence has on previously held convictions? 91. says that the book welcomes an evaluation of established systems? 92. indicates that recently discovered evidence had been unexpected? 93. gives an approximation as to the dissolution of nomadism? 94. gives examples of a symbiotic relationship between tribes? 95. speculates as to the creation of a natural element? 96. tells of an ongoing reassessment? 97. relates Scotts assertion that nomadic peoples flourished amongst early established 98. communities? speaks of modern day illtreatment? 99. compares a part of human anatomy with that of a close cousin? 100. IV. WRITING (55/200 points) Part 1. Graph Writing (20 pts) The chart below shows the Average Monthly Temperatures for three African cities. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words. 12
Part 2. Essay writing (35 pts) Write an essay of about 350 words on the following topics Some people claim that tourism can help to bridge cultural gaps between peoples of different nationalities and cultures. Do you agree or disagree? -----THE END----- 13
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Tổng số điểm toàn bài: 200 điểm Sau khi cộng toàn bộ số điểm, giám khảo quy về hệ điểm 20 (không làm tròn số) I. LISTENING (50/200 points) Part 1. Mỗi câu đúng được 2 điểm 1. F 2. F 3. T 4. F 5. NG Part 2. Mỗi câu đúng được 2 điểm 6. cognitive computing 7. trendspotting mistakes (học sinh viết: trendspotting mistake: được 1 điểm) 8. environmental footprint 9. analyzing images (học sinh viết: analyzing image: được 1 điểm) 10. (a) body measurement suit Part 3. Mỗi câu đúng được 2 điểm 11. B 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. D Part 4. Mỗi câu đúng được 2 điểm 16. moody and uncoordinated 17. hallucinating 18. sleepinducing chemicals 19. minor inconvenience 20. inflammation 21. fatal familial insomnia 22. receptor pathway 23. cleanup mechanism 24. lymphatic vessels 25. slumber II. LEXICOGRAMMAR (25/200 points) Part 1. Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 26. C 27. D 28. C 29. C 30. B 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. A 36. A 37. B 38. B 39. D 40. B 41. B 42. A 43. A 44. A 45. A Part 2. Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 46. antiscientific 14
47. runaway 48. hardhearted 49. misgivings 50. magisterial III. READING (70/200 points) Part 1. Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 51. one 52. nor/neither 53. speaking 54. search 55. bear/keep 56. but 57. straw 58. given 59. think 60. that Part 2. Mỗi câu đúng được 1,5 điểm 61. iv 62. viii 63. ii 64. iii 65. v 66. vi 67. i 68. FALSE 69. TRUE 70. NOT GIVEN 71. NOT GIVEN 72. TRUE 73. FALSE Part 3. Mỗi câu đúng được 1,5 điểm 74. D 75. A 76. F 77. C 78. G 79. B 80. H Part 4. Mỗi câu đúng được 1,5 điểm 81. C 82. C 83. D 84. A 85. D 86. B 87. C 88. A 89. D 90. C Part 5. Mỗi câu đúng được 1,5 điểm 91. C 92. A 93. D 94. C 95. C 96. C 97. A 98. C 99. A 100. B IV. WRITING (55/200 points) Part 1. Bài viết hoàn thành được 20 điểm. The mark is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: 35% of the total mark 2. Organization and presentation: 30% of the total mark. 3. Language: 30% of the total mark. 4. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: 5% of the total mark. Part 2. Bài viết hoàn thành được 35 điểm. The mark is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: 35% of the total mark 15
2. Organization and presentation: 30% of the total mark. 3. Language: 30% of the total mark. 4. Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: 5% of the total mark. -----the end----- 16