Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Lý Tự Trọng, Phước Sơn

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TRƯỜNG THCS LÝ TỰ TRỌNG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ I - NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 Họ và tên: ...................................... Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 7 Lớp: 7/... Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể giao đề) Điểm: Nhận xét của giáo viên: Chữ ký Chữ ký Chữ ký Giám thị Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 MÃ ĐỀ A A. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS (2.0 pts) I. Choose the letter A, B or C to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (0.4pts) 1. A. collected B. provided C. cleaned D. visited 2. A. chicken B. stomachache C. change D. watch II. Odd one out. (0.4pts) 3. A. milk B. lemonade C. soup D. juice 4. A. gallery B. musician C. composer D. singer III. Choose the best option from A, B, C, or D. (1.2pts) 5. ……………..Pham Tuyen wrote many good songs for children. A. Singer B. Composer C. Painter D. Teacher 6. Last week, we …………the elderly in a nursing home. A. are helping B. help C. helped D. helps 7. He hates……………..co mputer games. A. playing B. play C. to play D. played 8. I …………..to the English club every Tuesday. A. prepare B. go C. collect D. make 9. Lan: ………………..is a glass of milk tea, please? Waiter: It’s 10,000 dong. A. What B. How many C. How D. How much 10. There is ……… …………pepper in my omelette. A. many B. lots of C. any D. some B. READING (2.0 pts) I. Read the passage and fill in each blank with a suitable word from the box (1.0 pts) happy outside gets garden rides
Mark has a lot of hobbies and interests. He usually (11)…………… up early, so he can jog before school. After school, Mark often (12)……………. a horse at the riding club near his home. Sometimes he goes riding on Sunday afternoons. He also loves music He goes to choir practice on Wednesday and Saturday evenings. On Saturday mornings, he usually waters the plants and trees in the (13)……………... with his Mum. He seldom watches TV because he likes doing things (14) …………... He has a lot of friends and he plays football with them twice a week. He’s a (15) …………… boy! II. Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (1.0 pts) FOLK MUSIC Many people like listening to folk music in their free time. It is the kind of music that country people composed and sang folk songs. The songs had hundreds of years ago, so nobody knows who originally composed them. Modern music is often music for dancing. In Britain, people traditionally played it with instruments like flute (sáo), accordion (đàn xếp) etc.. In the 1950s, people wrote songs and played them with guitars. They were also called folk singers. The folk songs were very popular. They sometimes complain about bad things happening in life. 16. What do many people like listening in their free time? A.. classical music B. folk music C. rock music D. modern music 17. Who composed folk songs? A.. country people B. old singers C. city people D. folk singer 18. According to the passage, modern music is often for ________ A.. singing only B. playing with guitars C. dancing D. folk songs 19. Which instrument is NOT mentioned in the passage? A.. guitars B. pianos C. flute D. accordion 20. The underlined word They in the end of the passage refers to? A.. folk songs B. folk singers C. people D. guitars C. WRITING (2.0 pts) I. Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English.(0.4 pts) 21. She often does the piano in her free time. A B C D 22. How much apples do you need for your apple pie? A B C D II. Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged with the suggested words .(0.8 pts) 23. My dad loves watching football. I love watching football.  My dad and I…………………………………………………………………………….. 24. Nam is more artistic than Phong.  Phong is not as…………………………………………………………………………… 25. Let’s go to see the water puppet show this Saturday night.  How about………………………………………………………………………………..? 26. City life is not like country life.  City life is different ……………………………………………………………………………….. III. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0.8 pts) 27. There / be / two/ bottles/ water/ in the fridge. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. 28. Walking/ school/ instead of/ motorbike/ cars/be/ good/ for/ environment. ………………………………………………………………………………………………..
D. LISTENING (2.0 pts) Part 1: Listen to the dialogue about Tuan’s hobbies in his free time and write True or False.(1.0 pts) 29. Tuan’s mother teaches him to do cooking, painting, knitting and making cakes. …… 30. After school, he usually takes his cats out around the field. ........ 31. Playing instruments is his favourite hobby. …… 32. Every Sunday, his mother takes him to the guitar club near his house. …… 33. He spends all Sunday mornings painting pictures and drawing the things he likes. …… Part 2: Listen to Minh talking about the eating habits in his area. Circle the correct answer A, B or C to complete the following sentences. (1.0 pst) 34. People in Minh’s area often have ……………… meals a day. A. two B. three C. four D. five 35. Most of them have lunch …………… A. at home B. at a food stall C. at a canteen D. at school 36. ………….. is the main meal of the day in his area. A. Breakfast B. Lunch C. Dinner D. Fast meal 37. It often starts at around ……………. A. 5:30 p.m B. 6 p.m C. 6:30 p.m D. 7:30 p.m 38. After dinner, they often have some fruit and……………. A. green tea B. mineral water C. milk D. fruit juice _______ HẾT________ TRƯỜNG THCS LÝ TỰ TRỌNG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI KỲ I - NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 Họ và tên: ...................................... Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 7 Lớp: 7/... Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể giao đề) Điểm: Nhận xét của giáo viên: Chữ ký Chữ ký Chữ ký Giám thị Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2 MÃ ĐỀ B A. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS (2.0 pts) I. Choose the letter A, B or C to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (0.4pts) 1. A. cleaned B. provided C. collected D. visited 2. A. change B. stomachache C. chicken D. watch II. Odd one out. (0.4pts)
3. A. milk B. soup C. lemonade D. juice 4. A. singer B. musician C. composer D. gallery III. Choose the best option from A, B, C, or D.(1.2pts) 5. ……………..Pham Tuyen wrote many good songs for children. A. Singer B. Painter C. Composer D. Teacher 6. Last week, we …………the elderly in a nursing home. A. are helping B. help C. helps D. helped 7. He hates……………..co mputer games. A. play B. playing C. to play D. played 8. I …………..to the English club every Tuesday. A. collect B. go C. prepare D. make 9. Lan: ………………..is a glass of milk tea, please? Waiter: It’s 10,000 dong. A. What B. How C. How much D. How many 10. There is ……… …………pepper in my omelette. A. any B. some C. many D. lots of B. READING (2.0 pts) I. Read the passage and fill in each blank with a suitable word from the box.(1.0 pts) happy outside gets garden rides Mark has a lot of hobbies and interests. He usually (11)…………… up early, so he can jog before school. After school, Mark often (12)……………. a horse at the riding club near his home. Sometimes he goes riding on Sunday afternoons. He also loves music He goes to choir practice on Wednesday and Saturday evenings. On Saturday mornings, he usually waters the plants and trees in the (13)……………... with his Mum. He seldom watches TV because he likes doing things (14) …………... He has a lot of friends and he plays football with them twice a week. He’s a (15) …………… boy! II. Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (1.0 pt) FOLK MUSIC Many people like listening to folk music in their free time. It is the kind of music that country people composed and sang folk songs. The songs had hundreds of years ago, so nobody knows who originally composed them. Modern music is often music for dancing. In Britain, people traditionally played it with instruments like flute (sáo), accordion (đàn xếp), etc... In the 1950s, people wrote songs and played them with guitars. They were also called folk singers. The folk songs were very popular. They sometimes complain about bad things happening in life.
16. What do many people like listening in their free time? A. rock music B. classical music C. folk music D. modern music 17. Who composed folk songs? A.. country people B. city people C. old singers D. folk singer 18. According to the passage, modern music is often for ________ A. dancing B. playing with guitars C. singing only D. folk songs 19. Which instrument is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. guitars B. pianos C. flute D. accordion 20. The underlined word They in the end of the passage refers to? A.. folk singers B. people C. folk songs D. guitars C. WRITING (2.0 pts) I. Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English.(0.4 pts) 21. She has English lessons in Tuesday and Wednesday. A B C D 22. How many milk do you need for your apple pie? A B C D II. Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged with the suggested words .(0.8 pts) 23. My friend like studying English. I like studying English.  My friend and I…………………………………………………………………………….. 24. Nam is more artistic than Phong.  Phong is not as…………………………………………………………………………… 25. Let’s go to see the water puppet show this Saturday night.  How about………………………………………………………………………………..? 26. City life is not like country life.  City life is different ……………………………………………………………………………….. III. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0.8 pts) 27. There / be / two/ bottles/ water/ in the fridge. ………………………………………………………………………………………………. 28. Walking/ school/ instead of/ motorbike/ cars/be/ good/ for/ environment. ……………………………………………………………………………………………….. D. LISTENING (2.0 pts) Part 1: Listen to the dialogue about Tuan’s hobbies in his free time and write True or False. (1.0 pts) 29. Tuan’s mother teaches him to do cooking, painting, knitting and making cakes. …… 30. After school, he usually takes his cats out around the field. ........ 31. Playing instruments is his favourite hobby. …… 32. Every Sunday, his mother takes him to the guitar club near his house. …… 33. He spends all Sunday mornings painting pictures and drawing the things he likes. …… Part 2: Listen to Minh talking about the eating habits in his area. Circle the correct answer A, B or C to complete the following sentences. You will hear TWICE (1.0 pst) 34. People in Minh’s area often have ……………… meals a day. A. two B. three C. four D. five 35. Most of them have lunch
…………… A. at school B. at a food stall C. at a canteen D. at home 36. ………….. is the main meal of the day in his area. A. Dinner B. Lunch C. Breakfast D. Fast meal 37. It often starts at around ……………. A. 5:30 p.m B. 6 p.m C. 6:30 p.m D. 7:30 p.m 38. After dinner, they often have some fruit and……………. A. milk B. mineral water C. green tea D. fruit juice _______ HẾT________ TRƯỜNG THCS LÝ TỰ TRỌNG HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ A ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ I - NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 7 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể giao đề) A. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS ( 2,0 điểm) I. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x2 = 0,4 điểm 1. C 2. B II. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x2 = 0,4 điểm 3. C 4. A III. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x6 = 1,2 điểm 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. D B. READING ( 2,0 điểm) I. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x5 = 1 điểm 11. gets 12. rides 13. garden 14. outside 15. happy II. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x5 = 1 điểm 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. A C. WRITING ( 2,0 điểm) I. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x2 = 0,4 điểm 21. B 22. A II. Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x 4= 0,8 điểm
23. My dad and I love football. 24. Phong is not as artistic as Nam. 25. How about going to see the water puppet show this Saturday night? 26. City life is different from country life. III. Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,4 điểm x2= 0,8 điểm 27. There are two bottles of water in the fridge. 28. Walking to school instead of motorbikes or cars is good for our environment. D. LISTENING (2.0 điểm) Part 1: Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x5 = 1 điểm 29. T 30. F 31. T 32. F 33. F Part 2: Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x5 = 1 điểm 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. D 38. A *Tùy theo bài làm của học sinh giáo viên quyết định số điểm phần này cho phù hợp. ------------HẾT------------ TRƯỜNG THCS LÝ TỰ TRỌNG HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ B ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ I - NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 7 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể giao đề) A. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS ( 2,0 điểm) I. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x2 = 0,4 điểm 1. A 2. B II. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x2 = 0,4 điểm 3. B 4. D III. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x6 = 1,2 điểm 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. B B. READING ( 2,0 điểm) I. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x5 = 1 điểm 11. gets 12. rides 13. garden 14. outside 15. happy II. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x5 = 1 điểm
16. C 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. C C. WRITING ( 2,0 điểm) I. Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x2 = 0,4 điểm 21. C 22. A II. Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x 4= 0,8 điểm 23. My friend and I like studying English. 24. Phong is not as artistic as Nam. 25. How about going to see the water puppet show this Saturday night? 26. City life is different from country life. III. Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,4 điểm x2= 0,8 điểm 27. There are two bottles of water in the fridge. 28. Walking to school instead of motorbikes or cars is good for our environment. D. LISTENING (2.0 điểm) Part 1: Mỗi câu viết đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x5 = 1 điểm 29. T 30. F 31. T 32. F 33. F Part 2: Mỗi câu chọn đúng đạt 0,2 điểm x5 = 1 điểm 34. B 35. D 36. A 37. D 38. C *Tùy theo bài làm của học sinh giáo viên quyết định số điểm phần này cho phù hợp. ------------HẾT---------
TRƯỜNG THCS LÝ TỰ TRỌNG MATRIX FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST - ENGLISH 7 School year: 2023-2024 PARTS No. of Mark Task types Re Com High App Ques TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL Indicate the word whose underlined part is 2 0.4 0,4 pronounced LANGUA differently GE form the COMPON others. ENT MCQs: (2,0) 3 0,6 Circle the 0,4 0,2 best option MCQs: 5 1,0 Circle the 0,4 0,6 best option Read the text and fill in the blank 5 1,0 (with 0,8 0,2 suitable READING words from (2,0) the box) Read the text and 5 1,0 0,8 0,2 circle the best answer. 2 0,4 (Error WRITING identificatio (2,0) n) Circle A, B or C 0,4 which is not correct in standard English 4 0,8 (Sentence 0,8 transformati on) Rewrite the sentences so
as its meaning keeps unchanged 2 0,8 (Sentence building) Write complete sentences 0,8 from the words given. 5 1.0 - Listen and write True/False 1,0 LISTENIN G 5 1.0 - Listen and (2,0) circle the 1.0 best answer TOTAL(8,0) 38 8.0 3,4 2,2 0,8 2 0,4 Introduction 0,4 SPEAKIN 5 1,0 Topic 0,2 0,8 G speaking (2,0) 3 0,6 Questions 0,4 0,2 and Answer Grand Total 48 10,0 4,0 3,0 1,0 (10,0)
LY TU TRONG SECONDARY SCHOOL SPECIFICATION FOR THE FIRST END-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 7) School year: 2023-2024 CONTENTS No. Com Low App High App PARTS Re of Que TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL Pronunciat 2 0.4 Indicate the 0,4 LANGUA ion: word whose GE -Sen 1: underlined COMPON Distinguish part is ENT sounds pronounced (2,0) /d / & / id/ differently in ended form the sounds with others “ed” with the answer cleaned -Sen 2: Distinguish sounds /t∫/ & /k/ in words
which have letter “ch” with the answer stomachach e Vocabulary : - Question 3: 3 words about drink and 1 word about food with answer: Odd one soup 2 0,4 out 0,4 - Question 4: 1 word about place and 3 words about career with the answer: gallery Vocabulary MCQs: : Circle the - Question best option 5: a noun 1 0,2 0,2 about job with the answer: composer Grammar 2 0,4 points 0,4 - Question 6: 1 sen about simple past: S +V2/ V- ed .. with the answer: helped - Question
7: 1 sen with a verb after a liking verb: S + V-ing.. with the answer: playing Grammar points: - Question 8: 1 sen with a verb of simple present tense: S +V/Vs-es.. with the answer: go - Question 3 0,6 0,6 9: a question about price with the answer: how much - Question 10: a quality word with the answer: some READING - Question 5 1,0 (Cloze test) 0,8 0,2 (2,0) 11 1: 1 Read the word about text about a verb with hobby and the answer: fill in the gets blank (with - Question suitable 12: 1 word words from about a the box) verb with the answer: rides - Question
13: 1 word about a place with the answer: garden - Question 14: 1 word about pre of place with the answer: outside - Question 15 1: 1 word about an adjective with the answer: happy - Ques.16: 5 1,0 ( Reading 0,8 0,2 Choose the comprehens best answer ion) Read for the the text music about people like. healthy Ques. 17: living and Choose the circle the best answer best for whom answer: to composer folk songs. - Ques.18: Choose the best answer for the purpose of modern music. Ques. 19: Choose the instrument isn’t mentioned
in the passage. - Ques. 20: Choose the best answer for the word “they” refers to - Ques. WRITING 21:1 (2,0) mistake about verb (Error with the identificatio answer; n) Circle A, does B, C or D 2 0,4 - Ques. 22: which is not 0,4 1 mistake correct in about standard question English word with the answer; How many - Ques. 23: (Sentence -Rewrite transformati 0,8 the on) Rewrite sentence by 4 0,8 the writing the sentences two sen so as its into one meaning - Question keeps 24: unchanged -Rewrite the sentence using the equal comparison “…as artistic as..” - Ques. 25: Rewrite the sentence using form;
“How bout + v-ing….” - Ques. 26: Rewrite the sentence in comparison form: “… different from…” - Ques. 27: (Sentence Complete building) sentence Write with complete structure sentences “There… + from the countable words noun of …. given. + in .......” - Question 28: Complete 2 0,8 0,8 sentence with structure: “ S (V-ing phrase) + instead of + Noun phrase + is + adj + for….” LISTENIN - Question - Listen to a G 29 -33: T/F passage (2,0) statements about 5 1.0 1,0 Tuan’s hobbies and tick T/F - Question 5 1.0 - Listen to a 1,0 34 -38: dialogue Listen and about eating choose the habits correct answer to complete
the sentences TOTAL(8,0) 38 3,4 2,2 1,6 0,8 SPEAKIN - Introduce G personal (2,0) information Introductio 2 0,4 0,4 (hobby, n school, friends -Randomly take one vocab topic (hobby/heal thy/healthy living/ community service/ music and art/ food and drink) -5 minutes for preparation - Look at Topic the pictures 5 1,0 0,2 0,8 speaking and answer the question “What is this?” -Spell one word - two vocabs in situation -Student point the word form teacher’s explanation -Answer 3 0,6 Questions 0,4 0,2 three and questions Answers about one of the
topics ((hobby/he althy/health y living/ community service/ music and art/ food and drink) Grand Total 48 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 10,0)