Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Trần Hưng Đạo, Kon Tum

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“Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Trần Hưng Đạo, Kon Tum” giúp các bạn học sinh có thêm tài liệu ôn tập, luyện tập giải đề nhằm nắm vững được những kiến thức, kĩ năng cơ bản, đồng thời vận dụng kiến thức để giải các bài tập một cách thuận lợi. Chúc các bạn thi tốt!

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PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TP KON TUM TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ 1- NĂM HỌC: 2023-2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6 – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT Mức độ nhận thức Tổng TT Kĩ năng Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Thời Thời Thời Thời Thời Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ (%)/ gian gian gian gian gian (%)/câu (%)/câu (%)/câu (%)/câu câu (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) 12,5 5 10 5 2,5 2 25 1 LISTENING 12 5 câu 4 câu 1 câu 10 câu 12,5 5 7,5 5 5 3 25 13 2 LANGUAGE 5 câu 3 câu 2 câu 10 câu 10 6 12,5 10 2,5 2 25 18 3 READING 4 câu 5 câu 1 câu 10 câu 5 4 10 8 10 5 25 17 4 WRITING 2 4 câu a 6 câu + 1 câu para para 100% 40% 30% 20 % 10% Tổng 20 20 15 5 36 câu + 1 60 16 câu 12 câu 8 câu 1 para para Tỉ lệ % 40.00 30 20 10 100 Tỉ lệ chung (%) 70.00 30 100 Số câu: Nhận biết 16 Thông hiểu 12 Vận dụng 8 Vận dụng cao :1 paragraph
BẢNG MÔ TẢ KĨ THUẬT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ - NĂM HỌC: 2022-2023 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 - THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức T Nhận Thông Vận Vận dụng Tổng Số CH Kĩ năng Đơn vị kiến thức/kỹ năng T biết hiểu dụng cao TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL I. LISTENING Nghe 3 3 1. Học sinh nghe 1 đoạn hội thoại và 2 2 chọn A,B hoặc C (5 câu-1.25 điểm) 2. Nghe 1 đoạn hội thoại ngắn và 2 2 chọn T or F (5 câu-1.25 điểm) 2 1 3 (sách movers) II. LANGUAGE Pronunciation 2 2 - Sounds / a:/ and /ə/ - sounds /s / and / z / Vocabulary 1 1 Từ vựng đã học theo chủ đề. - My New School 1 1 - My house - My friends 2 2 Grammar • Multiple choice (2 câu) + 2 2 Put the correct form of the verb (2 câu) - Present simple - Present continuous 2 2
III READING 1. Cloze test 2 2 . Hiểu được bài đọc có độ dài khoảng 100-120 từ về chủ điểm: My house ( Điền từ cho sẵn vào chỗ trống) 3 3 2. Reading comprehension 2 2 Hiểu được nội dung chính và nội dung chi tiết đoạn văn bản có độ dài 2 khoảng 100-120 từ, đọc và trả lời 2 câu hỏi với chủ điểm: My new school 1 1 IV WRITING Sentence building . Sử dụng các từ đã để sắp xếp thành 2 2 câu hoàn chỉnh Sentence transformation 4 4 Viết câu tương đương Write a paragraph Viết 1 đoạn văn sử dụng câu hỏi gợi 1 para 1 para ý với chủ đề: My friends 14 2 10 2 4 4 28 8 + 1 para Tổng (70%) (30%) 36 câu + 1 Tổng toàn bài para
PHÒNG GD-ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ 1 TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề 601 Họ và tên: .......................................................................... Lớp: ............. (Đề có 03 trang) Scores Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2,5 points) Part 1. Listen and circle A, B or C (1.25 points) Question 1. Which one is Pat’s mother ? A. She’s got straight hair B. She’s wearing trousers C. She has curly hair Question 2. What does Pat want to buy ? A. a blue sweater B. a skirt C. trousers Question 3. What was the weather like here yesterday ? A. sunny B. cloudy C. rainy Question 4. Where’s Peter? A. on the balcony B. in the garden C. in the playground Question 5. What will they take on the picnic? A. burgers B. sandwiches C. sausages Part 2. Listen and look, then decide whether the sentences are (T) or (F). There is one example. (1.25 points) Sentences T F Question 6. Linh’s house is small. Question 7. Her house has more than four rooms. Question 8. Her room is far from the living room. Question 9. Linh’s sister’s room is between Linh’s room and her parents’ room Question 10. Linh’s room is next to her parents’ room. II. USE OF ENGLISH (2,5 points) Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others’. Circle A, B or C. (0,5point) Question 11. A. activity B. compass C. thank D. have Question 12. A. writes B. drives C. makes D. takes Part 2. Circle the correct answer A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. (1,5 points) Question 13. My new school many modern facilities. A. have B. having C. had D. has Question 14. Vy and I often do our________ after school. A. homework B. lunch C. history D. football Page 1/17
Question 15. The book is on the________________ desk. A. teacher’s B. teacher’ C. teacher D. teachers Question 16. Mi lives with her parents in a in the city’s centre. It’s small but beautiful. A. flat B. country house C. kitchen D. bed room Question 17. Nam: Hello, this is my new friend, Kien. John: A. That’s a great idea B. Hello. You must be Kien C. Kien is my friend now. D. Hello, nice to meet you, Kien! Question 18. Circle the letter A,B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in this sentence: “My sister is shy when she meets strangers.” A. confident B. hard-working C. talkative D. funny Part 3. Put the correct form of the verb. (0,5point) Question 19. Listen! Our teacher_____________ (speak) Question 20. He usually _____________ (watch) TV after dinner. III. READING (2,5 points) Part 1. Fill in each gap with a suitable word. Circle the choice.(1,25points) Minh lives (21) _____ his parents in a lovely apartment in Ho Chi Minh City. His apartment is not very big (22) _____ it is comfortable. There are five rooms in the apartment: a living room, two bedrooms, a kitchen and a bathroom. The living room is the (23) _____ of all. The bathroom is very beautiful. It has a sink, a tub and a shower. The kitchen (24) _____ very modern and has everything: refrigerator, washing machine, dishwasher, gas cooker, electric stove, kitchen table, etc. Minh's bedroom is not large, but it is very bright and its colors are nice. Minh (25) _____ his apartment a lot. Question 21. A. to B. on C. in D. with Question 22. A. but B. and C. or D. so Question 23. A. bigger B. smallest C. big D. biggest Question 24. A. be B. am C. is D. are Question 25. A. like B. likes C. liked D. love Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each statement or question (1.25 points). School of the Air Many of us may be surprised to hear the name “School of the air”, but there are over ten of them in Australia. Alice Springs School of the Air is one of these in the Northern Territory. The school provides an educational service for about 120 children living in Central Australia. Students of this school live far from each other, so they don't have normal lessons in classrooms, but they study at their homes. They get lessons from their teachers through post or e-mail. They have to work five or six hours a day, five days a week. They send their work to the teachers and discuss it over the Internet. They can borrow books from the school library, and the books arrive by post. They also take part in outside classroom activities such as sports and games. Question 26. Alice Springs School of the Air teaches children in ___________. A. all Australia B. Central Australia C. Northern Australia Question 27. Students get their lessons from their teachers ___________. A. through TV network B. through post or e-mail C. in classrooms Page 2/17
Question 28. Which of the following is NOT true? A. Students can play sports and games. B. Students can read books in the library. C. Students don't have lessons at weekends. Question 29. The word “them” in the first paragraph refers to ___________. A. schools of the air B. many of us C. schools in general Question 30. What is the passage mainly about? A. A special kind of school B. Schools in Australia C. A good way of learning IV. WRITING (2,5 points) Part 1. Put the words or phrases below to make sentences.(0,5 point) Question 31. up / Saturdays./ usually/ late/ on/ get/ I . Question 32. Mi’s mother/ is/ flowers/ in/ garden. / watering/ the . Part 2. Rewrite the following sentences so that their meaning stays the same. Use the given words (1,0 point) Question 33. My house has 3 bedrooms. → There my house. Question 34. The wall is behind the table. →The table of the wall. Question 35. My father usually drives to work. →My father usually goes Question 36. Thoa has long black hair. →Thoa’s hair . Part 3. Write a paragraph (about 40-60 words) to describe your best friend the following ideas may help you. (1,0 point) - What’s his/ her name? - How old is he/ she? - Where does he/ she live? - What does he/she look like? - What’s he/ she like? - Why do you like him / her? ------ THE END ------ Page 3/17
PHÒNG GD-ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ 1 TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề 602 Họ và tên: .......................................................................... Lớp: ............. (Đề có 03 trang) Scores Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2,5 points) Part 1. Listen and circle A, B or C (1.25 points) Question 1. Which one is Pat’s mother ? A. She’s wearing trousers B. She’s got straight hair C. She has curly hair Question 2. What does Pat want to buy ? A. a skirt B. a blue sweater C. trousers Question 3. What was the weather like here yesterday ? A. rainy B. cloudy C. sunny Question 4. Where’s Peter? A. in the playground B. in the garden C. on the balcony Question 5. What will they take on the picnic? A. sausages B. sandwiches C. burgers Part 1. Listen and look, then decide whether the sentences are (T) or (F). There is one example. (1.25 points) Sentences T F Question 6. Linh’s house is small. Question 7. Her house has more than four rooms. Question 8. Her room is far from the living room. Question 9. Linh’s sister’s room is between Linh’s room and her parents’ room Question 10. Linh’s room is next to her parents’ room. II. USE OF ENGLISH (2,5 points) Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others’. Circle A, B or C. (0,5point) Question 11. A. activity B. have C. thank D. compass Question 12. A. makes B. drives C. writes D. takes Part 2. Circle the correct answer A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. (1,5 points) Question 13. Mi lives with her parents in a in the city’s centre. It’s small but beautiful. Page 4/17
A. flat B. bed room C. country house D. kitchen Question 14. The book is on the________________ desk. A. teachers B. teacher’ C. teacher D. teacher’s Question 15. Vy and I often do our________ after school. A. homework B. football C. history D. lunch Question 16. Nam: Hello, this is my new friend, Kien. John: A. That’s a great idea B. Kien is my friend now. C. Hello, nice to meet you, Kien! D. Hello. You must be Kien Question 17. My new school many modern facilities. A. has B. had C. having D. have Question 18. Circle the letter A,B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in this sentence: “My sister is shy when she meets strangers.” A. talkative B. confident C. hard-working D. funny Part 3. Put the correct form of the verb. (0,5point) Question 19. Listen! Our teacher_____________ (speak) Question 20. He usually _____________ (watch) TV after dinner. III. READING (2,5 points) Part 1. Fill in each gap with a suitable word. Circle the choice.(1,25points) Minh lives (21) _____ his parents in a lovely apartment in Ho Chi Minh City. His apartment is not very big (22) _____ it is comfortable. There are five rooms in the apartment: a living room, two bedrooms, a kitchen and a bathroom. The living room is the (23) _____ of all. The bathroom is very beautiful. It has a sink, a tub and a shower. The kitchen (24) _____ very modern and has everything: refrigerator, washing machine, dishwasher, gas cooker, electric stove, kitchen table, etc. Minh's bedroom is not large, but it is very bright and its colors are nice. Minh (25) _____ his apartment a lot. Question 21. A. on B. to C. in D. with Question 22. A. or B. but C. and D. so Question 23. A. big B. smallest C. biggest D. bigger Question 24. A. am B. are C. is D. be Question 25. A. love B. likes C. liked D. like Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each statement or question (1.25 points). School of the Air Many of us may be surprised to hear the name “School of the air”, but there are over ten of them in Australia. Alice Springs School of the Air is one of these in the Northern Territory. The school provides an educational service for about 120 children living in Central Australia. Students of this school live far from each other, so they don't have normal lessons in classrooms, but they study at their homes. They get lessons from their teachers through post or e-mail. They have to work five or six hours a day, five days a week. They send their work to the teachers and discuss it over the Internet. They can borrow books from the school library, and the books arrive by post. They also take part in outside classroom activities such as sports and games. Question 26. Alice Springs School of the Air teaches children in ___________. A. all Australia B. Northern Australia C. Central Australia Question 27. Students get their lessons from their teachers ___________. A. through post or e-mail B. in classrooms Page 5/17
C. through TV network Question 28. Which of the following is NOT true? A. Students can read books in the library. B. Students don't have lessons at weekends. C. Students can play sports and games. Question 29. The word “them” in the first paragraph refers to ___________. A. schools of the air B. many of us C. schools in general Question 30. What is the passage mainly about? A. A good way of learning B. Schools in Australia C. A special kind of school IV. WRITING (2,5 points) Part 1. Put the words or phrases below to make sentences.(0,5 point) Question 31. up / Saturdays./ usually/ late/ on/ get/ I . Question 32. Mi’s mother/ is/ flowers/ in/ garden. / watering/ the . Part 2. Rewrite the following sentences so that their meaning stays the same. Use the given words (1,0 point) Question 33. My house has 3 bedrooms. → There my house. Question 34. The wall is behind the table. →The table of the wall. Question 35. My father usually drives to work. →My father usually goes Question 36. Thoa has long black hair. →Thoa’s hair . Part 3. Write a paragraph (about 40-60 words) to describe your best friend the following ideas may help you. (1,0 point) - What’s his/ her name? - How old is he/ she? - Where does he/ she live? - What does he/she look like? - What’s he/ she like? - Why do you like him / her? ------ THE END ------ Page 6/17
PHÒNG GD-ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ 1 TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề 603 Họ và tên: .......................................................................... Lớp: ............. (Đề có 03 trang) Scores Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2,5 points) Part 1. Listen and circle A, B or C (1.25 points) Question 1. Which one is Pat’s mother ? A. She’s wearing trousers B. She’s got straight hair C. She has curly hair Question 2. What does Pat want to buy ? A. a skirt B. trousers C. a blue sweater Question 3. What was the weather like here yesterday ? A. sunny B. rainy C. cloudy Question 4. Where’s Peter? A. in the playground B. on the balcony C. in the garden Question 5. What will they take on the picnic? A. sausages B. sandwiches C. burgers Part 2. Listen and look, then decide whether the sentences are (T) or (F). There is one example. (1.25 points) Sentences T F Question 6. Linh’s house is small. Question 7. Her house has more than four rooms. Question 8. Her room is far from the living room. Question 9. Linh’s sister’s room is between Linh’s room and her parents’ room. Question 10. Linh’s room is next to her parents’ room. II. USE OF ENGLISH (2,5 points) Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others’. Circle A, B or C. (0,5point) Question 11. A. thank B. have C. activity D. compass Question 12. A. drives B. takes C. writes D. makes Part 2. Circle the correct answer A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. (1,5 points) Question 13. The book is on the________________ desk. A. teachers B. teacher’s C. teacher D. teacher’ Question 14. Vy and I often do our________ after school. A. football B. lunch C. history D. homework Page 7/17
Question 15. My new school many modern facilities. A. have B. having C. had D. has Question 16. Mi lives with her parents in a in the city’s centre. It’s small but beautiful. A. country house B. bed room C. flat D. kitchen Question 17. Nam: Hello, this is my new friend, Kien. John: A. Kien is my friend now. B. Hello, nice to meet you, Kien! C. Hello. You must be Kien D. That’s a great idea Question 18. Circle the letter A,B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in this sentence: “My sister is shy when she meets strangers.” A. hard-working B. funny C. confident D. talkative Part 3. Put the correct form of the verb. (0,5point) Question 19. Listen! Our teacher_____________ (speak) Question 20. He usually _____________ (watch) TV after dinner. III. READING (2,5 points) Part 1. Fill in each gap with a suitable word. Circle the choice.(1,25points) Minh lives (21) _____ his parents in a lovely apartment in Ho Chi Minh City. His apartment is not very big (22) _____ it is comfortable. There are five rooms in the apartment: a living room, two bedrooms, a kitchen and a bathroom. The living room is the (23) _____ of all. The bathroom is very beautiful. It has a sink, a tub and a shower. The kitchen (24) _____ very modern and has everything: refrigerator, washing machine, dishwasher, gas cooker, electric stove, kitchen table, etc. Minh's bedroom is not large, but it is very bright and its colors are nice. Minh (25) _____ his apartment a lot. Question 21. A. in B. on C. to D. with Question 22. A. but B. so C. and D. or Question 23. A. biggest B. big C. bigger D. smallest Question 24. A. be B. are C. is D. am Question 25. A. like B. likes C. love D. liked Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each statement or question (1.25 points). School of the Air Many of us may be surprised to hear the name “School of the air”, but there are over ten of them in Australia. Alice Springs School of the Air is one of these in the Northern Territory. The school provides an educational service for about 120 children living in Central Australia. Students of this school live far from each other, so they don't have normal lessons in classrooms, but they study at their homes. They get lessons from their teachers through post or e-mail. They have to work five or six hours a day, five days a week. They send their work to the teachers and discuss it over the Internet. They can borrow books from the school library, and the books arrive by post. They also take part in outside classroom activities such as sports and games. Question 26. Alice Springs School of the Air teaches children in ___________. A. Northern Australia B. all Australia C. Central Australia Question 27. Students get their lessons from their teachers ___________. A. in classrooms B. through TV network C. through post or e-mail Page 8/17
Question 28. Which of the following is NOT true? A. Students can play sports and games. B. Students can read books in the library. C. Students don't have lessons at weekends. Question 29. The word “them” in the first paragraph refers to ___________. A. schools in general B. schools of the air C. many of us Question 30. What is the passage mainly about? A. A special kind of school B. A good way of learning C. Schools in Australia IV. WRITING (2,5 points) Part 1. Put the words or phrases below to make sentences.(0,5 point) Question 31. up / Saturdays./ usually/ late/ on/ get/ I . Question 32. Mi’s mother/ is/ flowers/ in/ garden. / watering/ the . Part 2. Rewrite the following sentences so that their meaning stays the same. Use the given words (1,0 point) Question 33. My house has 3 bedrooms. → There my house. Question 34. The wall is behind the table. →The table of the wall. Question 35. My father usually drives to work. →My father usually goes Question 36. Thoa has long black hair. →Thoa’s hair . Part 3. Write a paragraph (about 40-60 words) to describe your best friend the following ideas may help you. (1,0 point) - What’s his/ her name? - How old is he/ she? - Where does he/ she live? - What does he/she look like? - What’s he/ she like? - Why do you like him / her? ------ THE END ------ Page 9/17
PHÒNG GD-ĐT TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ 1 TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề 604 Họ và tên: .......................................................................... Lớp: ............. (Đề có 03 trang) Scores Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2,5 points) Part 1. Listen and circle A, B or C (1.25 points) Question 1. Which one is Pat’s mother ? A. She’s got straight hair B. She has curly hair C. She’s wearing trousers Question 2. What does Pat want to buy ? A. a blue sweater B. a skirt C. trousers Question 3. What was the weather like here yesterday ? A. cloudy B. rainy C. sunny Question 4. Where’s Peter? A. in the garden B. on the balcony C. in the playground Question 5. What will they take on the picnic? A. burgers B. sausages C. sandwiches Part 2. Listen and look, then decide whether the sentences are (T) or (F). There is one example. (1.25 points) Sentences T F Question 6. Linh’s house is small. Question 7. Her house has more than four rooms. Question 8. Her room is far from the living room. Question 9. Linh’s sister’s room is between Linh’s room and her parents’ room Question 10. Linh’s room is next to her parents’ room. II. USE OF ENGLISH (2,5 points) Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others’. Circle A, B or C. (0,5point) Question 11. A. drives B. makes C. writes D. takes Question 12. A. thank B. compass C. have D. activity Part 2. Circle the correct answer A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. (1,5 points) Question 13. Mi lives with her parents in a in the city’s centre. It’s small but beautiful. A. flat B. kitchen C. country house D. bed room Question 14. The book is on the________________ desk. Page 10/17
A. teachers B. teacher’ C. teacher D. teacher’s Question 15. My new school many modern facilities. A. has B. have C. having D. had Question 16. Circle the letter A,B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in this sentence: “My sister is shy when she meets strangers.” A. confident B. funny C. hard-working D. talkative Question 17. Vy and I often do our________ after school. A. history B. homework C. football D. lunch Question 18. Nam: Hello, this is my new friend, Kien. John: A. Kien is my friend now. B. Hello. You must be Kien C. That’s a great idea D. Hello, nice to meet you, Kien! Part 3. Put the correct form of the verb. (0,5point) Question 19. Listen! Our teacher_____________ (speak) Question 20. He usually _____________ (watch) TV after dinner. III. READING (2,5 points) Task 1. Fill in each gap with a suitable word. Circle the choice.(1,25points) Minh lives (21) _____ his parents in a lovely apartment in Ho Chi Minh City. His apartment is not very big (22) _____ it is comfortable. There are five rooms in the apartment: a living room, two bedrooms, a kitchen and a bathroom. The living room is the (23) _____ of all. The bathroom is very beautiful. It has a sink, a tub and a shower. The kitchen (24) _____ very modern and has everything: refrigerator, washing machine, dishwasher, gas cooker, electric stove, kitchen table, etc. Minh's bedroom is not large, but it is very bright and its colors are nice. Minh (25) _____ his apartment a lot. Question 21. A. in B. with C. on D. to Question 22. A. but B. and C. so D. or Question 23. A. biggest B. smallest C. big D. bigger Question 24. A. are B. be C. am D. is Question 25. A. liked B. likes C. like D. love Task 2. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each statement or question (1.25 points). School of the Air Many of us may be surprised to hear the name “School of the air”, but there are over ten of them in Australia. Alice Springs School of the Air is one of these in the Northern Territory. The school provides an educational service for about 120 children living in Central Australia. Students of this school live far from each other, so they don't have normal lessons in classrooms, but they study at their homes. They get lessons from their teachers through post or e-mail. They have to work five or six hours a day, five days a week. They send their work to the teachers and discuss it over the Internet. They can borrow books from the school library, and the books arrive by post. They also take part in outside classroom activities such as sports and games. Question 26. Alice Springs School of the Air teaches children in ___________. A. Northern Australia B. all Australia C. Central Australia Question 27. Students get their lessons from their teachers ___________. A. through TV network B. in classrooms C. through post or e-mail Page 11/17
Question 28. Which of the following is NOT true? A. Students don't have lessons at weekends. B. Students can play sports and games. C. Students can read books in the library. Question 29. The word “them” in the first paragraph refers to ___________. A. schools of the air B. schools in general C. many of us Question 30. What is the passage mainly about? A. A good way of learning B. A special kind of school C. Schools in Australia IV. WRITING (2,5 points) Part 1. Put the words or phrases below to make sentences.(0,5 point) Question 31. up / Saturdays./ usually/ late/ on/ get/ I . Question 32. Mi’s mother/ is/ flowers/ in/ garden. / watering/ the . Part 2. Rewrite the following sentences so that their meaning stays the same. Use the given words (1,0 point) Question 33. My house has 3 bedrooms. → There my house. Question 34. The wall is behind the table. →The table of the wall. Question 35. My father usually drives to work. →My father usually goes Question 36. Thoa has long black hair. →Thoa’s hair . Part 3. Write a paragraph (about 40-60 words) to describe your best friend the following ideas may help you. (1,0 point) - What’s his/ her name? - How old is he/ she? - Where does he/ she live? - What does he/she look like? - What’s he/ she like? - Why do you like him / her? ------ THE END ------ Page 12/17
PHÒNG GD & ĐT TP KON TUM HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ I TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC: 2023-2024 Môn: Tiếng Anh 6 ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM I. HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG: Tổng cộng 10 điểm A. Listening: 2,5 điểm 2,5 điểm = 10 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.25 điểm B. Language: 2,0 điểm 2,5 điểm = 10 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu trả lời đúng được 0.25 điểm C. Reading: 2,0 điểm 2,5 điểm = 10 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu chọn đúng từ được 0.25 điểm D. Writing: 2,5 điểm 1,5 điểm = 6 câu x 0.25 Mỗi câu chọn đúng từ được 0.25 điểm 1 điểm = a paragraph II. ĐÁP ÁN 1. PHẦN: LISTENING – LANGUAGE – READING (CÂU 1→30) MÃ ĐỀ 601 1B 2B 3A 4C 5C 6F 7T 8F 9T 10F 19. is 20. 11B 12B 13D 14A 15A 16A 17D 18A speaking watches 21D 22A 23D 24C 25B 26B 27B 28B 29A 30A MÃ ĐỀ 602 1A 2A 3C 4A 5A 6F 7T 8F 9T 10F 19. is 20. 11D 12B 13A 14D 15A 16C 17A 18B speaking watches 21D 22B 23C 24C 25B 26C 27A 28A 29A 30C Page 13/17
MÃ ĐỀ 603 1A 2A 3A 4A 5A 6F 7T 8F 9T 10F 19. is 20. 11D 12A 13B 14D 15D 16C 17B 18C speaking watches 21D 22A 23A 24C 25B 26C 27C 28B 29B 30A MÃ ĐỀ 604 1C 2B 3C 4C 5B 6F 7T 8F 9T 10F 19. is 20. 11A 12B 13A 14D 15A 16A 17B 18D speaking watches 21B 22A 23A 24D 25B 26C 27C 28C 29A 30B 2. PHẦN WRITING (CÂU 31→36) + a paragraph 31 I usually get up late on Saturdays. 32 Mi’s mother is watering flowers in the garden. 33 are 3 bedrooms 34 is in front 35 to work by (his) car 36 is long and black a para Tùy vào bài viết của học sinh, giáo viên linh hoạt cho điểm. Students have to: - Cover main ideas. (0,5 mark ) - Write the words enough (60 - 80 words). (0,25 mark) - Use the correct tense and structures in each sentence. (0,25 mark) Kon Tum, ngày 16 tháng 10 năm 2023 BGH duyệt TCM duyệt GV ra đề Vũ Thị Hằng Nguyễn Thị Kim Phương Lương Trần Kim Nguyên Page 14/17