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Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Trãi, Núi Thành

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Thông qua việc giải trực tiếp trên “Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Trãi, Núi Thành” các em sẽ nắm vững nội dung bài học, rèn luyện kỹ năng giải đề, hãy tham khảo và ôn thi thật tốt nhé! Chúc các em ôn tập kiểm tra đạt kết quả cao!

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Trãi, Núi Thành

  1. UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ I- NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP: 7 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không tính thời gian phát đề) ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Mã đề: A Họ và tên: …………………………… Đánh giá và nhận xét của GVBM: Lớp: ………………….. ( Học sinh làm trực tiếp vào tờ đề) I. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS:(3,0 pts) Task 1. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently(0,5 pt) 1. A. of B. favourite C. farm D. fit 2. A. collected B. helped C. provided D. donated Task 2. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. (2,5pts) 3. My father goes to the Riders’ Club every Sunday. His hobby is______. A. gardening B. horse riding C. fishing D.making models 4. She uses and cardboard to build her dollhouse. A. coins B. book C. water D. glue 5. If you have , use lip balm. A. chapped lips B. sunburn C. acne D. pimple 6. We collected clothes and gave them to . A. rich people B. homeless children C. rich children D. engineers 7. We bottles to help the environment last month. A. reuse B. will reused C. are reusing D. reused 8. His brother likes models. A. making B. makes C. made D. to making 9. My friend jogging every day. A. go B. went C. goes D. will go 10.Which of these following sentences is the simple sentence? A.My mother and I eat a lot of tofu every week. B. She likes lemonade, but I like green tea. C. She wants to keep fit, so she does exercise every day. D. I don’t eat fast food, and I don’t drink soda. 11. Your eyes look tired. You can eye drops. A. uses B. is using C. used D. use 12. Last week, there some interesting films on TV. A. was B. were C. is D. are II. READING: ( 2,5 pts): Read the passage carefully and do the tasks below: Task 1. Fill in the blank with one suitable word from the box: (1,5 pts) plants gets outside rides on friends Mark has a lot of hobbies and interests. He usually (13) up early, so he can jog before school. After school, Mark often (14) a horse at the riding club near his home. Sometimes he goes riding (15) Sunday afternoons. He also listens to music. He goes to choir practice on Wednesday and Saturday evenings. On Saturday mornings, he usually waters the (16) and trees in the garden with his mum. He seldom watches TV because he likes doing things (17) He has a lot of (18) and he plays football with them twice a week. He’s a happy boy! Task 2. Read the text and circle the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the questions. (1,0m) Community service is very important in social life. As you know, our social life has both the rich and the poor people. So it is necessary for us to take part in volunteer activities to help poor people and elderly people. We can help them in various ways. Firstly, it is easy for us to collect old clothes which we don’t need. Besides, we can join volunteer activities to raise funds for the poor and the homeless in our country. Finally, we can spend time talking with older people, sharing with poor children. Through these activities, we can develop our leadership skill by organizing fund raising, providing food as well.
  2. 19. What is the passage about? A. social life B. poor people C. poor children D. community service 20. How can we develop our leadership skill? A. Collecting old clothes B. Helping poor people C. Sharing with poor children D. Organizing fund raising 21. What does the word “them” in the passage refer to? A. poor people B. older people C. poor people and elderly people D. rich people 22. Which is NOT TRUE about community service? A. It can develop our leadership skill. B. It is not necessary in our life. C. It is important in our life D. It is a work that people do to help poor people. III. WRITING: (2,5pts) Task 1. Choose A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English:(0,5pt) 23. I really enjoy collect teaddy bears with my friends at the weekend . A B C D 24. Mr John teach English in this school in 2010. A B C D Task 2. Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged.(1,0pt) 25. His brother likes making models. (enjoy ) => His . 26. You shouldn’t eat much meat. You shouldn’t eat much fast food. (Write a simple sentence using “and” ) => You shouldn’t eat . 27. Peter loves doing judo. ( hobby) => Peter . 28. Mary hates watching cartoons . ( not like ) => Mary . Task 3 . Write complete sentences from the words given. (1,0 pt) 29. They/donate/ books and clothes/ children/ rural areas/ last month. => . 30. community/ organise/ fair/ raise/ charity/ two/ ago? => . IV. LISTENING: (2,0pts) Part 1: Listen to an interview about Trang’s hobby and tick True (T) or False (F) with the statements in the table: (1pt) Statements T F 31 She started her hobby 3 years ago. 32 She shared her hobby with her relatives. 33 Trang needs some cardboard and water to build dollhouses. 34 She is more patient and creative Part 2: Listen to a man talking about healthy habits . Circle the correct answer. (1,0m) 35. Healthy habits helps us avoid ………….. A. disease B. acne C. sunburn D. viruses 36. Eat more fruit and vegetables, especially ………..ones like carrots and tomatoes. A. fresh B. calories C. coloured D. clean 37. Drink ……..water, but not soft drinks. A. so much B. little C. enough D. many 38. Go to bed early and get about ……. hours of sleep daily A. 10 B. 8 C. 7 D. 9 _______ THE END __________
  3. UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ I- NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP: 7 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không tính thời gian phát đề) ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Mã đề: B Họ và tên: …………………………… Đánh giá và nhận xét của GVBM: Lớp: ………………….. I. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS:(3,0 pts) Task 1. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently(0,5 pt) 1. A. favourite B. tofu C. fit D. of 2. A. donated B. needed C. watched D. provided Task 2. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. (2,5pts) 3. My sister’s favourite hobby is______. She has lots of coins from different country. A. collecting coins B. cooking C. gardening D. painting 4. We need some and glue to build dollhouse. A. water B. books C. paper D. cardboard 5. Please name some - Carrots and tomatoes. A. tofu B. soft drinks C. coloured vegetables D. water 6. They help in the nursing home every month. A. homeless children B. rich people B. volunteers D. old people 7. Lisa clothes to poor children last summer. A. donated B. donates C. is donating D. will donate 8. Peter’s counsin dislikes models. A. make B. to make C. making D. to making 9. My friends jogging every day. A. go B. doesn’t go C. went D. will go 10.Which of these following sentences is the simple sentence? A. She likes vegetables, but I like chicken. B. My mother and I spend a lot of time in the garden every day. C. She doesn’t want to get sunburn, so she uses suncream. D. I hate gardening, and I don’t like doing the housework . 11.Your eyes look tired. You shouldn’t in dim light. A. reading B. read C. reads D. to read 12. Last week, there an interesting film on TV. A. was B. were C. is D. are II. READING: (2,5 pts): Read the passage carefully and do the tasks below: Task 1. Fill in the blank with one suitable word from the box: (1,5 pts) of pick up teenagers hospital make happy Volunteering can bring a lot of benefits for teenagers. It gives (13) the chance to see how their efforts can help improve others' lives. Through voluntary work, teenagers also (14) friends. They can learn from friends. When volunteering, teenagers may choose to work in a place that they find interesting. If they want to take care (15) sick people, they may volunteer at a (16) If they like to be outdoor, they can go down on the street and (17) litter. When they help others, they also feel (18) . Task 2. Read the passage and choose the best answer: (1,0 pt) It’s very important to live healthily. Firstly, if you eat healthy food, you will feel much better. You should have three to five meals a day, including lots of fruit and vegetables, and drink two liters of water a day. You can even make a delicious drink with the fruit you like. It is full of vitamins. Secondly, you should start exercising, and you will feel great. If you think going to the gym is expensive, there are other types of exercise you can do easily. On weekdays, you can ride a bike or walk to school. Thirdly,
  4. you shouldn’t sit in front of the TV after school. You should do physical activities around the house or in the garden, such as watering the plants. Or you can listen to your favorite music and dance to it. Moreover, it’s good to hang out with your friends on weekends and have fun. These small changes can help changing your life. (hang out: đi chơi) 19. What is the passage mainly about? A. sports B. hobbies C. healthy living D. outdoor activities 20. How much water should you drink a day? A. 5 liters B. 2 liters C. 2 bottles D. 2 glasses 21. What does the word “It” in the passage refer to? A. fruit juice B. meal C. gym D. food 22. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE? A. You should have three to five meals a day. B. You can make a delicious drink with the fruit you like. C. You should sit in front of the TV after school. D. Hanging out with friends on weekends is fun. III. WRITING: (2,5pts) Task 1. Choose A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English:(0,5pt) 23. My brother enjoys to decorate his room with his own paintings. A B C D 24. The students collect some plastic bottles in the school yard yesterday. A B C D Task 2. Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged.(1,0pt) 25. Her best friend enjoys walking in the rain. (like ) => Her . 26. My dad loves outdoor activities. I love outdoor activities. (Write a simple sentence using “and” ) => My . 27. Linda loves building dollhouses. (hobby ) => Linda . 28. They hate playing video games. (not like ) => They . Task 3. Write complete sentences from the words given. (1,0 pt) 29. His friend / give / food/ old people/ hospital/ last year. => . 30. community/ not/ organise/ fair/ raise/ elderly/ four months / ago. => . IV. LISTENING: (2,0pts) Part 1: Listen to an interview about Trang’s hobby and tick True (T) or False (F) with the statements in the table: (1pt) Statements T F 31 She started her hobby 13 years ago. 32 She shared her hobby with her cousin. 33 Trang needs some cardboard and glue to build dollhouses. 34 She is more patient and hard-working. Part 2: Listen to a man talking about healthy habits. Circle the correct answer. (1,0ms) 35. Healthy habits helps us avoid ………….. A. sunburn B. viruses C. disease D. ance 36. Eat more fruit and vegetables, especially ………..ones like carrots and tomatoes. A. coloured B. calories C. clean D. fresh 37. Eat meat, eggs, and cheese, but not too…….. A. many B. little C. less D. much 38. Go to bed early and get about ……. hours of sleep daily A. 9 B. 7 C. 10 D. 8 _______ THE END __________
  5. TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2024– 2025 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 7 MÃ ĐỀ A I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT. (3.0 pts) Task 1, 2: Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0,25 điểm: Câu 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Đáp án A B B D A B D A C B D B II. READING: (2.0 pts) Task 1: (1.5 pts) Mỗi từ điền đúng được 0,25 điểm: Câu 13 14 15 16 17 18 Đáp án gets rides on plants outside friends Task 2: (1 pt) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0,2 điểm Câu 19 20 21 22 Đáp án D D C B III. WRITING: (2.5 pts) Task 1. (0,5pts): Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0,25 điểm Câu 23 24 Đáp án B B Task 2. (1.0pt): Mỗi câu viết đúng được 0,25 điểm 25. -> Her brother enjoys making models. 26. -> You shouldn’t eat meat and fast food. 27. -> Peter’s hobby is doing judo. 28. -> Mary doesn’t like watching cartoons. Task 3. (1.0pt): Mỗi câu viết đúng được 0,5 điểm 29. -> They donated books and clothes to children in rural areas last month. 30. -> Did your community organise a fair to raise money for the charity two days ago. *Chú ý: Tùy theo mức độ đạt được của bài làm, giáo viên quyết định điểm cho phù hợp ở part B, C IV. LISTENING. (2.0 pts) Part 1: (1pt) Mỗi câu đánh dấu (v) đúng hoặc ghi T cho câu đúng và F cho câu sai được 0,25 điểm Câu 31 32 33 34 Đáp án T F F T Part 2. (1.0 pt) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0,2 5điểm: Câu 35 36 37 38 Đáp án A C C B
  6. TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ I NĂM HỌC 2024– 2025 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 7 MÃ ĐỀ B I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT. (3.0 pts) Task 1, 2: Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0,25 điểm: Câu 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Đáp án D C A D C D A C A D C A II. READING: (2.0 pts) Task 1: (1.5 pts) Mỗi từ điền đúng được 0,25 điểm: Câu 13 14 15 16 17 18 Đáp án teenagers make of hospital pick up happy Task 2: (1 pt) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0,2 điểm Câu 19 20 21 22 Đáp án C B A C III. WRITING: (2.5 pts) Task 1. (0,5pts): Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0,25 điểm Câu 23 24 Đáp án A B Task 2. (1.0pt): Mỗi câu viết đúng được 0,25 điểm 25. -> Her best friend likes walking in the rain. 26. -> My dad and I love outdoor activities. 27. -> Linda’s hobby is building dollhouses. 28. -> They don’t like playing video games. Task 3. (1.0pt): Mỗi câu viết đúng được 0,5 điểm 29. -> Her friend gave food to old people in a hospital last year. 30. -> My community didn’t organise a fair to raise money for the elderly four months ago. *Chú ý: Tùy theo mức độ đạt được của bài làm, giáo viên quyết định điểm cho phù hợp ở part B, C IV. LISTENING. (2.0 pts) Part 1: (1pt) Mỗi câu đánh dấu (v) đúng hoặc ghi T cho câu đúng và F cho câu sai được 0,25 điểm Câu 31 32 33 34 Đáp án F T T F Part 2. (1.0 pt) Mỗi câu chọn đúng được 0,2 5điểm: Câu 35 36 37 38 Đáp án C A D D …………. Hết ………………..
  7. UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH MATRIX FOR THE FIRST MID-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 7) TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI School year: 2024- 2025 No. of Mark Com Low High PARTS Task types Re Ques App App TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL Pronunciation: Indicate the word whose 2 0.5 underlined part is pronounced differently 0.5 form the others/ stress Vocabulary: MCQs: Choose the best option 0.5 LANGUAGE 4 1.0 0.5 COMPONENT (3,0) Grammar: MCQs: Choose the best option 6 1.5 0,5 1.0 Read the text and fill in the blank (with 6 1.5 1.0 0.5 READING (2,5) suitable words from the box) 4 1.0 Read the text and choose the best answer: 0.5 0.5 2 0.5 (Error identification) Choose A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English 0.5 4 1.0 (Sentence transformation) Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged WRITING (2,5) 0.5 0,5 2 1.0 (Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words given. 1,0 4 1.0 - Listen and tick True or False 1.0
  8. LISTENING (2,0) 4 1.0 - Listen and choose the best answer 1.0 TOTAL(10,0) 38 10.0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0
  9. UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH SPECIFICATION FOR THE MID-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 7) TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN TRÃI School year: 2024- 2025 CONTENTS No. of Com Low App High App PARTS Mar Task types Re Ques k TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL Pronunciation: 1. Recognize the difference Indicate the word whose between the two sounds/f/ & / v/ underlined part is 2 0.5 pronounced differently form 0,5 2. Recognize the difference the others between the two sounds /ɪd/& / t/ Vocabulary: 3. a word about hobbies 4. a word about hobbies 4 1,0 0,5 Choose the best option Vocabulary: LANGUAGE 5. a word about healthy living 0,5 COMPONENT 6. a word about community (3,0) service Grammar points: 7. 1 sentence about past simple tense 2 0,5 0,5 8. 1 sentence about verbs of liking and disliking. Choose the best option Grammar points: 9. 1 sentence about simple present tense. 4 1,0 1,0 10.1 sentence about simple sentence.
  10. 11.1 sentence about model verbs 12. 1 sentence about past simple tense. 13. 1 word about a verb 14. 1 word about an noun (Cloze test) Read the text 4 1,0 1,0 15. 1 word about a preposition about healthy living and fill 16. 1 word about conjunction in the blank (with suitable 17. 1 word about an adjective words from the box) 2 0,5 0,5 18. 1 word about tense READING 19. The passage is about friends (2,5) 2 0,5 0,5 20. How much…/ How can ( Reading comprehetsion) 21. The word …..in the passage Read the text about refer to community and healthy living 22. Which is not True about 2 0,5 0,5 and choose the best answer community service and healthy living 23. 1 sentence about linking and (Error identification) Circle disliking + V-ing. 2 0,5 A, B, C or D which is not 24. 1 sentence about the past correct in standard English 0,5 simple tense 25. 1 sentence about verbs of liking. WRITING 26. 1 sentence about simple (Sentence transformation) (2,5) sentence Rewrite the sentences so as 27. 1 sentence about hobby 0,5 its meaning keeps unchanged 0,5 28. 1 sentence about verbs of 4 1,0 disliking + V-ing. 29. 1 sentence about the simple (Sentence building) Write present. 2 1,0 complete sentences from the 1,0 words given.
  11. 30. 1 sentence about the simple past. 31,32,33,34 - Listen to a dialogue about 4 1.0 1.0 T/F statement healthy habits and tick T/F LISTENING 35,36,37,38 - Listen to a dialogue about (2,0) Choose the best answer. hobbies and choose the best 4 1.0 1,0 answer A,B,C or D TOTAL(10) 38 10 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0
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