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Nội dung Text: Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Lý Thường Kiệt, Hội An
- UBND TP HỘI AN MATRIX FOR THE SECOND MID-
TERM TEST TRƯỜNG TH-THCS LÝ THƯỜNG KIỆT
(ENGLISH 6)
School year: 2023-2024
PARTS No. Mark Task types Com Low High
of App App
Ques TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL
Pronu
nciati
on:
Indicat
e the
word
whose
underli
ned
2 0.5 0,5
part is
pronou
nced
differe
ntly
LAN from
GUA the
GE others
COM / stress
PONE Vocab
NT ulary:
(3,0) MCQs
0,5
:
4 1,0 0,5
Circle
the
best
option
Gram
mar:
MCQs
:
6 1,5
Circle 0,5 1,0
the
best
option
READ 6 1,5 Read 1,0 0,5
ING the
(2,5) text
and
fill in
- the
blank
(with
suitabl
e
words
from
the
box)
Read
the
text
and
4 1,0 circle 0,5 0,5
the
best
answer
:
(Error
WRIT identif
ING ication
(2,5) )
Circle
A, B,
C or D
2 0.5 which 0,5
is not
correct
in
standa
rd
Englis
h
4 1,0 (Sente 0,5 0,5
nce
transfo
rmatio
n)
Rewrit
e the
senten
ces so
that its
meani
ng
keeps
uncha
nged
- (Sente
nce
rearran
gemen
t)
Compl
2 1,0 ete the
1,0
senten
ces
with
words
given
LIST 4 1,0 -
ENIN Listen
G and
(2,0) choose
1,0
the
best
answer
s.
4 1,0 -
Listen
and
fill in 1,0
the
blanks
TOTAL(10, 38 10.0
3,0 2,0 1,0
0)
- UBND TP HỘI AN SPECIFICATION FOR THE SECOND MID-TERM
TEST TRƯỜNG TH-THCS LÝ THƯỜNG KIỆT (ENGLISH 6)
School year: 2023-2024
PARTS CONTENTS No. of Mark Task types Re Low App High App
Ques TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL
Pronun
LANG ciation:
UAGE -Sen 1:
COMP sounds/
ONEN θ/
T and /ծ/
(3,0) -Sen 2: Indicate
s the
o word
u whose
n underlin
d ed part
s 2 0.5 is 0,5
/ pronoun
a ced
ʊ different
/ ly from
a the
n others
d
/
ə
ʊ
/
Vocabu 4 1.0 0,5
lary:
- Sen MCQs: 0,5
3: a Circle
noun the best
abou option
t TV
prog
ram
me
- Sen
4:
verb
abou
t
sport
s
- Sen
5: an
adj
abou
t
food
- Sen
6: a
noun
abou
- t TV
Gramm
ar 0,5 1.0
points:
- Sen 7:
imper
ative
- Sen 8:
simpl
e past
- Sen 9:
posse
ssive
prono
MCQs:
un
6 1.5 Circle
- Sen
the best
10:
option
conju
nction
- Sen
11:
Wh
questi
on
- Sen
12:
past
simpl
e
READI -Sen
NG 13: 1
(2,5) word
about
an adj
-Sen
14: 1
word
about a
noun
(Cloze
-Sen
test)
15: 1
Read
word
the text
about a
and fill
verb
6 1.5 in the
-Sen 1.0 0.5
blank
16: 1
(with
word
suitable
about
words
an adj
from the
-Sen
box)
17: 1
word
about
V-ing
- Sen
18: 1
word
about a
preposit
ion
MCQs 4 1.0 ( Readin 0.5 0,5
- Sen g
- 19:
read of
specific
informa
tion
-Sen
20: find
out the
synony
compre
m of the
hension
underli
) Read
ned
the text
part.
and
-Sen
circle
21:
the best
read for
answer:
specific
informa
tion.
-Sen
22:
read for
specific
informa
tion.
-Sen
(Error
WRITI 23: 1
identific
NG sentenc
ation)
(2,5) e about
Circle
simple
A, B, C
past
or D
tense 2 0,5
which is
-Sen 0,5
not
24: 1
correct
sentenc
in
e about
standard
possessi
English
ve adj
-Sen (Senten
25: -1 ce 0.5
sentenc transfor 0.5
e about 4 1.0 mation)
a Rewrite
conjunc the
tion sentenc
-Sen es so as
26: 1 its
sentenc meanin
e about g keeps
possessi unchang
ve ed
pronou
n
-Sen
27: 1
sentenc
e about
imperat
ive
-Sen 28
1
sentenc
- e about
Wh
questio
n
-Sen
(Senten
29: 1
ce
sentenc
building
e about
) Write
imperat
complet
ive
e
-Sen 2 1.0 1.0
sentenc
30: 1
es from
sentenc
the
e about
words
simple
given.
past
Sen 31- - Listen
34: and
Multipl choose
1.0 1.0
e choice 4 the best
answers
LISTE
.
NING
(2,0)
-Sen 35- Listen
38: and fill
Gap- 4 1.0 in the 1,0
filling blanks
TOTAL
38 10,0 4,0 2,0 1,0
(10,0)
- ………………….. primary & secondary school THE 2nd MID-TERM TEST – ENGLISH 6
Class: …../……. School year: 2023 – 2024
Full name :…………………………………….. Time : 60 minutes
Date of examination: …. / 3/ 2024
Teacher’s comments Mark
A. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (3 pts)
I. Circle the word whose underlined part pronounced differently. (0.5 pts)
1. A. they B. this C. than D. think
2. A. cold B. how C. snow D. photo
II. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each gap of the sentences. ( 2.5
pts )
3. Doraemon is a very cute ………..…. .
A. film B. character C. comedy D.
channel
4. Many girls and women………..…. aerobics to keep fit.
A. do B. play C. go D. cycle
5. Ha Noi is famous for its ………..…. street food.
A. stall B. palace C. delicious D. sunny
6. What ………..…. do you often watch? – I like animated films.
A. news B. comedy C.game show D.
programme
7. ………..…. to get up early to do some morning exercise.
A. Trying B. Don’t try C. Try D. Not
try
8. He ………..…. Times Square in New York with his family yesterday.
A. am visiting B. visit C. visits D.
visited
9. My favourite sport is cycling and ………..…. is volleyball.
A. your B. hers C. her D. They
10. Tom stayed up late, ………..….he is tired now.
A. so B. but C. and D. or
11. ………..…. is the Great Wall: in China or in Japan?
A. When B. Where C. Why D. Who
12. ………..…. sleep well last night?
A. Are you B. Were you C. Do you D. Did
you
B. READING (2.5 pts)
I. Read the passage and fill in the blanks with the words in the box (1.5 pts)
has - famous - swimming - sunny - for - tourists
- Nha Trang is a beautiful seaside city in central Viet Nam. It is (13) ………..…. for
beautiful beaches, so it attracts a lot of (14) …………..…. from many countries. It (15) ………..
……. an exciting atmosphere of a young, growing city. Coming to Nha Trang from January
to August, you can enjoy wonderful weather: warm and (16) ………….…. .It is so good for
(17) ……….…..…. and sunbathing. Visitors can rent a bike and cycle around the city. Nha
Trang is also famous (18) ………..…. its delicious seafood.
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B,C or D to each of the
questions. (1pt).
Rebecca Stevens
Rebecca Stevens was the first woman to climb Mount Everest. Before
she went up the highest mountain in the world, she was a journalist
and lived in south London. In 1993, Rebecca left her job and her
family and travelled to Asia with some other climbers. They found
that life on Everest is very difficult. “You must carry everything on your back,” she
explained, “so you can only take things that you will need. You can’t wash on the mountain,
and in the end I didn’t even take a toothbrush. I am usually a clean person but there is no
water, only snow. Water is very heavy so you only take enough to drink!”. Rebecca became
famous when she reached the top of Mount Everest on May 17, 1993. After that, she wrote a
book about the trip, and people often asked her to talk about it. She got a new job too, on a
science programme on television.
19) Where did Rebecca come from?
A. Japan B. America C. France D. England
20) Who does the word “ They” in line 4 refer to?
A. Rebecca B. Rebecca and other climbers
C. other climbers D. Rebecca’s family
21) Life on Everest is very difficult because _______.
A. there is no water there B. there are no toothbrushes
C. you can’t take things with you D. it is very high
22) After 1993, Rebecca had a _______.
A. new book B. television C. programme D. new
job
C. WRITING (2.5 pts)
I. Choose A, B, C or D to indicate the incorrect part. (0.5 pts)
23. I watch an educational programme on VTV2 channel last night.
A B C D
24. You are wearing mine hat. It’s not yours.
A B C D
II. Rewrite the sentences based on the given cues. (1 pt)
25. My brother can colour pictures. He can’t draw. (but)
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………
26. These are her new shoes. (hers)
These new ……………………………………………………………………………………………..………
27. Your friends are making a lot of noise in class.
Don’t……………………………………………………………………………………………..………………
28. My sister was interested in music when she was a child. (liked)
……………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………
- III. Make a complete sentence by using the given cues. (1pt)
29. Not/ forget/ get up / early/ tomorrow.
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………….
30. People/ build/ the pagoda/ the 16th century.
……………………………………………………………………………………………..………………………
D. LISTENING (2.0 pts)
I. Listen to the passages and circle the best answers. (1pt)
31. Hai often ……with his dad at the weekend.
A. goes cycling B. plays volleyball C. walks D. plays
football
32. His favourite sport is …… because it makes him strong and confident.
A. chess B. karate C. judo D.
volleyball
33. Alice likes watching…… on TV.
A. game shows B. films C. sport D.
cartoons
34. She plays …… with her friends every Saturday.
A. chess B. badminton C. computer games D.
volleyball
II. Listen to a passage and fill each gap with ONE word. (1pt)
35. Bangkok is …………………. for its markets and street food.
36. There are over 15,000 …………………. selling nearly everything, at cheap prices.
37. Another interesting type of market is the …………………. market on the river.
38. Thai dishes are really …………………. .
*****THE END*****
- ANSWER KEYS
A/ VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (3 pts)
1. D 2. B
3. B 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. C
8. D 9. B 10. A 11. B 12. D
B. READING (2.5 pts)
I. Read the passage and fill in the blanks with the words in the box (1.5 pts)
13. Famous
14. Tourists
15. has
16. sunny
17. Swimming
18. for
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions. (1pt)
19. D 20. B 21. A 22. D
C.WRITING (2.5 pts)
I/ Circle the word that is NOT TRUE and correct it (0.5 pts)
23. A (watch => watched) 24. B (mine => my)
II/ Rewrite the 2nd sentence with the same meaning as the 1st one. (1 pt)
25. My brother can colour pictures, but he can’t draw.
26. These new shoes are hers.
27. Please, don’t make noise in class.
28. My sister liked music when she was a child
III/ Make a complete sentence by using the given words. (1pt)
29. Don’t forget to get up early tomorrow.
30. People built the pagoda in the 16th century.
D/ LISTENING (2.0 pts)
I/ Task1 : Listen to the passages and circle the best answers. (1.0pts)
31. A
32. B
33. C
31. A
II/ Task 2: listen and fill in the gaps
31. famous 36. stalls 37. floating 38. delicious
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