Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Thắng Lợi, Kon Tum

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TRƯỜNG TH-THCS THẮNG LỢI Tổ: Tiếng Anh- HĐGD MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ II- NĂM HỌC: 2024-2025 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT Mức độ nhận thức Tổng Vận dụng TT Kĩ năng Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng cao Tỉ lệ Thời Tỉ lệ Thời Tỉ lệ Thời Thời Tỉ lệ Thời (%)/câu (%)/câu (%)/câu Tỉ lệ gian gian gian gian (%)/ gian (%)/câu (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) câu (phút) 12,5 6 12,5 6 25 1 LISTENING 12 5 câu 5 câu 10 câu 12,5 5 7,5 4 5 4 25 13 2 LANGUAGE 6 câu 2 câu 2 câu 10 câu 12,5 7 12,5 10 25 17 3 READING 5 câu 5 câu 10 câu 15 8 10 1 25 18 0 4 WRITING 6 câu a para 6 câu +1 para 100% 40% 30% 20 % 10% Tổng 18 20 12 10 36 câu + 60 16 câu 12 câu 8 câu 1 para 1 para Tỉ lệ % 40.00 30 20 10 100 Tỉ lệ chung (%) 70.00 30 100 Số câu: Nhận biết 16 Thông hiểu 12 Vận dụng 8 Vận dụng cao :1 paragraph Lưu ý: - Thời gian mang tính đề xuất, cán bộ ra đề tham khảo để lựa chọn số câu hỏi cho phù hợp với thời gian ấn định của bài kiểm tra. - Tỉ lệ mức độ nhận thức mang tính đề xuất. - Tỉ lệ giữa các kỹ năng và kiến thức ngôn ngữ có thể điều chỉnh trong khoảng 5%. - Tỉ lệ được tính dựa trên điểm số, không tính trên số lượng câu hỏi. - Tỉ lệ giữa câu trắc nghiệm khách quan và câu tự luận là tương đối, có thể điều chỉnh theo điều kiện thực tế. Giáo viên ra đề
Trần Tố Uyên BẢNG ĐẶC TẢ KĨ THUẬT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ II -NĂM HỌC: 2024-2025 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 - THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức Đơn vị kiến Nhận Thông Vận Tổng Số CH TT Kĩ năng Vận dụng thức/kỹ năng biết hiểu dụng cao TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL I. LISTENING1. Học sinh nghe 1 2 2 đoạn hội thoại ngắn và trả lời True (T) / False 3 3 (F). 3 3 2. - Nghe 1 đoạn hội thoại 2 2 ngắn và khoanh tròn câu trả lời đúng. II. LANGUAGE Pronunciation 2 2 Phát âm /ai/, /i/ Trọng âm Vocabulary 3 3 Từ vựng đã học theo chủ đề. 1 - All things 1 high-tech - Travel & transportation 2 2 1 1 Grammar: modals 1 1 to – inf III. READING 1. Cloze test 3 3 Hiểu được bài đọc có độ dài 2 2 khoảng 120 - 150 từ về chủ điểm: The Internet and human memory.
Chọn phương án đúng để hoàn thành đoạn văn. (tiêu đề, từ quy chiếu, từ đồng nghĩa, 1 thông tin chi tiết có trong bài) 2. Reading 2 2 comprehension Hiểu được nội 3 3 dung chính và nội dung chi tiết đoạn văn ngắn với chủ đề: Video games (R/W/DS) IV. WRITING Sentence transformation - Sử dụng các từ gợi ý để 3 2 viết lai câu sao cho nghĩa không đổi. Sentence building Dùng từ gợi ý 3 để viết thành 4 câu đúng. Write a paragraph (60- 1 1 80 từ) par para Viết 1 đoạn văn a về chủ đề: hi- tech device 16 12 8 1 28 8+1 par para a (70 Tổng %) (30 %)
TRƯỜNG TH- THCS THẮNG LỢI KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ II TỔ: TIẾNG ANH-HĐGD NĂM HỌC 2024- 2025 Họ và tên………………………… MÔN: TIẾNG ANH-LỚP 7 Lớp………… Tuần 27-Tiết PPCT: 79 (Thời gian làm bài 60 phút) ĐỀ I (Đề có 36 câu, in trong 3 trang) Score: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2.5 points) Part 1: Listen to the conversation between Paul and Brenda about TV programme and answer True (T) or False (F). (1.25 pts) T/F 1. There isn’t a reality show on at 7.00 on channel 5. ………. 2. Paul doesn’t like reality shows. ………. 3. Paul likes to watch something with a little bit more action. ………. 4. He has seen Star Wars a hundred times. ………. 5. Paul has to get up early tomorrow. .……… Part 2: You will hear a talk. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to each question. (1.25 pts) 6. Where is the woman going to visit? A. Da Nang B. Ha Noi C. Kon tum D. Da Lat 7. What time will they leave Ho Chi Minh City? A. 5 a.m B. 6 a.m C. 7 a.m D. 8 a.m 8. Where will they have breakfast? A. At a restaurant B. At home C. On the bus D. At a bakery 9. They will visit …………… . A. King Bao Dai’s Palace C. Love Valley B. Tuyen Lam Lake D. Linh An Pagoda 10. How long is the trip? A. 2 days B. 3 days C. 5 days D. 7 days II. LANGUAGE (2.5 points) Part 1: Choose the best answers. (2.0 pts) 11. My uncle is a(n) ………….. . He always helps me fix the hardware or software in my computer. A. engineer B. IT technician C. designer D. mechanic 12. I want ……… a mechanic when I grow up. A. am B. be C. to be D. being 13. Students …………….. to pay fees to use this learning app. They can install it free of charge. A. mustn’t B. shouldn’t C. needn’t D. don’t have 14. We should use …………………….. products and protect the wildlife. A. environment-friendly B. environmentally-friendly C. environmental-friend D. environmental friendly
15. Mike would love to learn how to ……………. a helicopter when he grows up. A. drive B. take C. fly D. ride 16. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence: - I like playing strategy games because they are really interesting. A. difficult B. boring C. easy D. fun 17. Choose the word that has a stress pattern different from the others. A. engineer B. technician C. mechanic D. designer 18. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. file B. item C. click D. assignment Part 2. Write the correct form of the words in brackets. (0.5 m) 19. We don’t have …………………….…... to enter the computer lab without our teachers. (PERMIT) 20. There are many tourist ………………………… in Vietnam, such as Hội An Ancient Town, Hạ Long Bay or Huế Imperial City. (ATTRACT) III. READING (2.5 points) Part 1: Read the passage and choose the correct option A, B, C or D that best fits each blank. (1.25 pts) The Internet and human memory. The internet is a great invention …………… (21) the 21st century. It brings us a lot of conveniences, but it also kills our memory. Nowadays, most of the information is online, and we don’t need ……………… (22) things. People seem to depend on smart devices and the Internet too much. For example, a lot of people save all their relatives’ and friends’ phone numbers on their …………….. (23), but they don’t even try to remember the important ones. Many others always use a map app for directions. They don’t know to get to a place even though they’ve been there many times. What will happen if their smartphones are broken, or they don’t have ……………. (24) Internet connection? …………………. (25) the Internet is useful, it is indeed killing our memory. 21. A. from B. in C. for D. with 22. A. to remember B. remember C. to remembering D. remembering 23. A. towers B. routers C. smartphones D. speakers 24. A. the B. an C. a D. none 25. A. So B. Because C. If D. Although Part 2: Read the text about video games. Write R (right), W (wrong) or DS (doesn’t say) (1.25 pts) VIDEO GAMES A video game is a kind of electronic game. Many teenagers or even adults dream of having their game consoles. Teenagers often play video games in their free time to relax. Some of them play video games to train their brains and motor skills. Some video games are called electronic sports, and people play them in competitions. Nowadays, video games come in many different types, such as strategy, simulation, and platform, just like films and books come in different genres. Players can choose the type of their interests. Video games have both good and bad points, but if you are careful and know when to stop, you can enjoy all their benefits.
R/ W/ DS 26. Video games are electronic games. ………… 27. Many young people play video games for entertainment. ………… 28. Older people play video games in competitions. ………… 29. There are only two types of video games. ………… 30. Playing video games with care brings us many benefits. ………… IV. WRITING (2.5 points) Part 1: Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. (0.5 pt) 31. Travelling by bus is cheaper than travelling by train. => Travelling by train …..………..……………………………………… 32. It’s against the rule to bring a smartphone to the exam room. => You mustn’t ………...………………………………………………… Part 2: Use the given words or phrases to make complete sentences. (1.0 pt) 33. It/ cold/ in the north/ Viet Nam than in the south. => ………...………………………………………………………………. 34. My uncle/ decide/ buy/ the/ expensive/ smartphone/ the shop/ yesterday. => ………...………………………………………………………………. 35. He/ enjoy/ listen/ classical music/ relax in his free time. => ………...………………………………………………………………. 36. Lan/ longest /hair /in /class. => ………...………………………………………………………………. Part 3: Write a paragraph (about 60-80 words) about the film with a robot /robots, including the information in the box. (1.0 pt) - the name of the film - the name (s) of the robot (s) - what it /they can do - how you feel about the film …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… The end
TRƯỜNG TH- THCS THẮNG LỢI KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ II TỔ: TIẾNG ANH-HĐGD NĂM HỌC 2024- 2025 Họ và tên………………………… MÔN: TIẾNG ANH-LỚP 7 Lớp………… Tuần 27-Tiết PPCT: 79 (Thời gian làm bài 60 phút) ĐỀ II (Đề có 36 câu, in trong 3 trang) Score: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2.5 points) Part 1: Listen to the conversation between Paul and Brenda about TV programme and answer True (T) or False (F). (1.25 pts) T/F 1. There isn’t a reality show on at 7.00 on channel 5. ………. 2. Paul doesn’t like reality shows. ………. 3. Paul likes to watch something with a little bit more action. ………. 4. He has seen Star Wars a hundred times. ………. 5. Paul has to get up early tomorrow. .……… Part 2: You will hear a talk. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to each question. (1.25 pts) 6. Where is the woman going to visit? A. Da Lat B. Ha Noi C. Kon tum D. Da Nang 7. What time will they leave Ho Chi Minh City? A. 5 a.m B. 7 a.m C. 6 a.m D. 8 a.m 8. Where will they have breakfast? A. At home B. At a restaurant C. On the bus D. At a bakery 9. They will visit …………… . A. King Bao Dai’s Palace C. Linh An Pagoda B. Tuyen Lam Lake D. Love Valley 10. How long is the trip? A. 2 days B. 5 days C. 3 days D. 7 days II. LANGUAGE (2.5 points) Part 1: Choose the best answers. (2.0 pts) 11. Mike would love to learn how to ……………. a helicopter when he grows up. A. drive B. take C. ride D. fly 12. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence: - I like playing strategy games because they are really interesting. A. difficult B. easy C. boring D. fun 13. Choose the word that has a stress pattern different from the others. A. technician B. engineer C. mechanic D. designer 14. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. file B. item C. assignment D. click
15. My uncle is a(n) ………….. . He always helps me fix the hardware or software in my computer. A. engineer B. designer C. IT technician D. mechanic 16. I want ……… a mechanic when I grow up. A. am B. be C. being D. to be 17. Students …………….. to pay fees to use this learning app. They can install it free of charge. A. don’t have B. shouldn’t C. needn’t D. mustn’t 18. We should use …………………….. products and protect the wildlife. A. environment-friendly B. environmental-friend C. environmentally-friendly D. environmental friendly Part 2. Write the correct form of the words in brackets. (0.5 m) 19. We don’t have …………………….…... to enter the computer lab without our teachers. (PERMIT) 20. There are many tourist ………………………… in Vietnam, such as Hội An Ancient Town, Hạ Long Bay or Huế Imperial City. (ATTRACT) III. READING (2.5 points) Part 1: Read the passage and choose the correct option A, B, C or D that best fits each blank. (1.25 pts) The Internet and human memory. The internet is a great invention …………… (21) the 21st century. It brings us a lot of conveniences, but it also kills our memory. Nowadays, most of the information is online, and we don’t need ……………… (22) things. People seem to depend on smart devices and the Internet too much. For example, a lot of people save all their relatives’ and friends’ phone numbers on their …………….. (23), but they don’t even try to remember the important ones. Many others always use a map app for directions. They don’t know to get to a place even though they’ve been there many times. What will happen if their smartphones are broken, or they don’t have ……………. (24) Internet connection? …………………. (25) the Internet is useful, it is indeed killing our memory. 21. A. from B. for C. in D. with 22. A. remember B. to remember C. to remembering D. remembering 23. A. towers B. routers C. speakers D. smartphones 24. A. the B. a C. an D. none 25. A. Although B. Because C. If D. So Part 2: Read the text about video games. Write R (right), W (wrong) or DS (doesn’t say) (1.25 pts) VIDEO GAMES A video game is a kind of electronic game. Many teenagers or even adults dream of having their game consoles. Teenagers often play video games in their free time to relax. Some of them play video games to train their brains and motor skills. Some video games are called electronic sports, and people play them in competitions. Nowadays, video games come in many different types, such as strategy, simulation, and platform, just like films and books come in different genres. Players can choose the type of their interests. Video games have both good and bad points, but if you are careful and know when to stop, you can enjoy all their benefits.
R/ W/ DS 26. Video games are electronic games. ………… 27. Many young people play video games for entertainment. ………… 28. Older people play video games in competitions. ………… 29. There are only two types of video games. ………… 30. Playing video games with care brings us many benefits. ………… IV. WRITING (2.5 points) Part 1: Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. (0.5 pt) 31. It’s against the rule to bring a smartphone to the exam room. => You mustn’t ………...………………………………………………… 32. Travelling by bus is cheaper than travelling by train. => Travelling by train …..………..……………………………………… Part 2: Use the given words or phrases to make complete sentences. (1.0 pt) 33. He/ enjoy/ listen/ classical music/ relax in his free time. => ………...………………………………………………………………. 34. Lan/ longest /hair /in /class. => ………...………………………………………………………………. 35. It/ cold/ in the north/ Viet Nam than in the south. => ………...………………………………………………………………. 36. My uncle/ decide/ buy/ the/ expensive/ smartphone/ the shop/ yesterday. => ………...………………………………………………………………. Part 3: Write a paragraph (about 60-80 words) about the film with a robot /robots, including the information in the box. (1.0 pt) - the name of the film - the name (s) of the robot (s) - what it /they can do - how you feel about the film …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… The end
TRƯỜNG TH- THCS THẮNG LỢI KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ II TỔ: TIẾNG ANH-HĐGD NĂM HỌC 2024- 2025 Họ và tên………………………… MÔN: TIẾNG ANH-LỚP 7 Lớp………… Tuần 27-Tiết PPCT: 79 (Thời gian làm bài 60 phút) ĐỀ III (Đề có 36 câu, in trong 3 trang) Score: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2.5 points) Part 1: Listen to the conversation between Paul and Brenda about TV programme and answer True (T) or False (F). (1.25 pts) T/F 1. There isn’t a reality show on at 7.00 on channel 5. ………. 2. Paul doesn’t like reality shows. ………. 3. Paul likes to watch something with a little bit more action. ………. 4. He has seen Star Wars a hundred times. ………. 5. Paul has to get up early tomorrow. .……… Part 2: You will hear a talk. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to each question. (1.25 pts) 6. Where is the woman going to visit? A. Ha Noi B. Da Lat C. Kon tum D. Da Nang 7. What time will they leave Ho Chi Minh City? A. 5 a.m B. 7 a.m C. 8 a.m D. 6 a.m 8. Where will they have breakfast? A. At home B. On the bus C. At a restaurant D. At a bakery 9. They will visit …………… . A. Love Valley C. Linh An Pagoda B. Tuyen Lam Lake D. King Bao Dai’s Palace 10. How long is the trip? A. 2 days B. 5 days C. 7 days D. 3 days II. LANGUAGE (2.5 points) Part 1: Choose the best answers. (2.0 pts) 11. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. click B. item C. assignment D. file 12. My uncle is a(n) ………….. . He always helps me fix the hardware or software in my computer. A. engineer B. designer C. mechanic D. IT technician 13. I want ……… a mechanic when I grow up. A. to be B. be C. being D. am 14. Mike would love to learn how to ……………. a helicopter when he grows up. A. fly B. take C. ride D. drive
15. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence: - I like playing strategy games because they are really interesting. A. difficult B. easy C. fun D. boring 16. Choose the word that has a stress pattern different from the others. A. technician B. mechanic C. engineer D. designer 17. Students …………….. to pay fees to use this learning app. They can install it free of charge. A. shouldn’t B. don’t have C. needn’t D. mustn’t 18. We should use …………………….. products and protect the wildlife. A. environment-friendly B. environmental-friend C. environmental friendly D. environmentally-friendly Part 2. Write the correct form of the words in brackets. (0.5 m) 19. We don’t have …………………….…... to enter the computer lab without our teachers. (PERMIT) 20. There are many tourist ………………………… in Vietnam, such as Hội An Ancient Town, Hạ Long Bay or Huế Imperial City. (ATTRACT) III. READING (2.5 points) Part 1: Read the passage and choose the correct option A, B, C or D that best fits each blank. (1.25 pts) The Internet and human memory. The internet is a great invention …………… (21) the 21st century. It brings us a lot of conveniences, but it also kills our memory. Nowadays, most of the information is online, and we don’t need ……………… (22) things. People seem to depend on smart devices and the Internet too much. For example, a lot of people save all their relatives’ and friends’ phone numbers on their …………….. (23), but they don’t even try to remember the important ones. Many others always use a map app for directions. They don’t know to get to a place even though they’ve been there many times. What will happen if their smartphones are broken, or they don’t have ……………. (24) Internet connection? …………………. (25) the Internet is useful, it is indeed killing our memory. 21. A. from B. for C. with D. in 22. A. remember B. to remembering C. to remember D. remembering 23. A. smartphones B. routers C. speakers D. towers 24. A. the B. a C. none D. an 25. A. Because B. Although C. If D. So Part 2: Read the text about video games. Write R (right), W (wrong) or DS (doesn’t say) (1.25 pts) VIDEO GAMES A video game is a kind of electronic game. Many teenagers or even adults dream of having their game consoles. Teenagers often play video games in their free time to relax. Some of them play video games to train their brains and motor skills. Some video games are called electronic sports, and people play them in competitions. Nowadays, video games come in many different types, such as strategy, simulation, and platform, just like films and books come in different genres. Players can choose the type of their interests. Video games have
both good and bad points, but if you are careful and know when to stop, you can enjoy all their benefits. R/ W/ DS 26. Video games are electronic games. ………… 27. Many young people play video games for entertainment. ………… 28. Older people play video games in competitions. ………… 29. There are only two types of video games. ………… 30. Playing video games with care brings us many benefits. ………… IV. WRITING (2.5 points) Part 1: Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. (0.5 pt) 31. Travelling by bus is cheaper than travelling by train. => Travelling by train …..………..……………………………………… 32. It’s against the rule to bring a smartphone to the exam room. => You mustn’t ………...………………………………………………… Part 2: Use the given words or phrases to make complete sentences. (1.0 pt) 33. He/ enjoy/ listen/ classical music/ relax in his free time. => ………...………………………………………………………………. 34. My uncle/ decide/ buy/ the/ expensive/ smartphone/ the shop/ yesterday. => ………...………………………………………………………………. 35. Lan/ longest /hair /in /class. => ………...………………………………………………………………. 36. It/ cold/ in the north/ Viet Nam than in the south. => ………...………………………………………………………………. Part 3: Write a paragraph (about 60-80 words) about the film with a robot /robots, including the information in the box. (1.0 pt) - the name of the film - the name (s) of the robot (s) - what it /they can do - how you feel about the film …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… The end.
TRƯỜNG TH- THCS THẮNG LỢI KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ II TỔ: TIẾNG ANH-HĐGD NĂM HỌC 2024- 2025 Họ và tên………………………… MÔN: TIẾNG ANH-LỚP 7 Lớp………… Tuần 27-Tiết PPCT: 79 (Thời gian làm bài 60 phút) ĐỀ IV (Đề có 36 câu, in trong 3 trang) Score: Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2.5 points) Part 1: Listen to the conversation between Paul and Brenda about TV programme and answer True (T) or False (F). (1.25 pts) T/F 1. There isn’t a reality show on at 7.00 on channel 5. ………. 2. Paul doesn’t like reality shows. ………. 3. Paul likes to watch something with a little bit more action. ………. 4. He has seen Star Wars a hundred times. ………. 5. Paul has to get up early tomorrow. .……… Part 2: You will hear a talk. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to each question. (1.25 pts) 6. Where is the woman going to visit? A. Ha Noi B. Kon tum C. Da Lat D. Da Nang 7. What time will they leave Ho Chi Minh City? A. 6 a.m B. 7 a.m C. 8 a.m D. 5 a.m 8. Where will they have breakfast? A. At home B. On the bus C. At a bakery D. At a restaurant 9. They will visit …………… . A. Tuyen Lam Lake C. Linh An Pagoda B. Love Valley D. King Bao Dai’s Palace 10. How long is the trip? A. 3 days B. 5 days C. 7 days D. 2 days II. LANGUAGE (2.5 points) Part 1: Choose the best answers. (2.0 pts) 11. Choose the word that has a stress pattern different from the others. A. technician B. mechanic C. designer D. engineer 12. Students …………….. to pay fees to use this learning app. They can install it free of charge. A. shouldn’t B. needn’t C. don’t have D. mustn’t 13. We should use …………………….. products and protect the wildlife. A. environment-friendly B. environmental-friend C. environmental friendly D. environmentally-friendly 14. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. item B. click C. assignment D. file
15. My uncle is a(n) ………….. . He always helps me fix the hardware or software in my computer. A. IT technician B. designer C. mechanic D. engineer 16. I want ……… a mechanic when I grow up. A. be B. to be C. being D. am 17. Mike would love to learn how to ……………. a helicopter when he grows up. A. take B. fly C. ride D. drive 18. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence: - I like playing strategy games because they are really interesting. A. boring B. easy C. fun D. difficult Part 2. Write the correct form of the words in brackets. (0.5 m) 19. We don’t have …………………….…... to enter the computer lab without our teachers. (PERMIT) 20. There are many tourist ………………………… in Vietnam, such as Hội An Ancient Town, Hạ Long Bay or Huế Imperial City. (ATTRACT) III. READING (2.5 points) Part 1: Read the passage and choose the correct option A, B, C or D that best fits each blank. (1.25 pts) The Internet and human memory. The internet is a great invention …………… (21) the 21st century. It brings us a lot of conveniences, but it also kills our memory. Nowadays, most of the information is online, and we don’t need ……………… (22) things. People seem to depend on smart devices and the Internet too much. For example, a lot of people save all their relatives’ and friends’ phone numbers on their …………….. (23), but they don’t even try to remember the important ones. Many others always use a map app for directions. They don’t know to get to a place even though they’ve been there many times. What will happen if their smartphones are broken, or they don’t have ……………. (24) Internet connection? …………………. (25) the Internet is useful, it is indeed killing our memory. 21. A. in B. for C. with D. from 22. A. remember B. to remembering C. remembering D. to remember 23. A. routers B. smartphones C. speakers D. towers 24. A. an B. a C. none D. the 25. A. Because B. If C. Although D. So Part 2: Read the text about video games. Write R (right), W (wrong) or DS (doesn’t say) (1.25 pts) VIDEO GAMES A video game is a kind of electronic game. Many teenagers or even adults dream of having their game consoles. Teenagers often play video games in their free time to relax. Some of them play video games to train their brains and motor skills. Some video games are called electronic sports, and people play them in competitions. Nowadays, video games come in many different types, such as strategy, simulation, and platform, just like films and books come in different genres. Players can choose the type of their interests. Video games have
both good and bad points, but if you are careful and know when to stop, you can enjoy all their benefits. R/ W/ DS 26. Video games are electronic games. ………… 27. Many young people play video games for entertainment. ………… 28. Older people play video games in competitions. ………… 29. There are only two types of video games. ………… 30. Playing video games with care brings us many benefits. ………… IV. WRITING (2.5 points) Part 1: Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. (0.5 pt) 31. Travelling by bus is cheaper than travelling by train. => Travelling by train …..………..……………………………………… 32. It’s against the rule to bring a smartphone to the exam room. => You mustn’t ………...………………………………………………… Part 2: Use the given words or phrases to make complete sentences. (1.0 pt) 33. Lan/ longest /hair /in /class. => ………...………………………………………………………………. 34. It/ cold/ in the north/ Viet Nam than in the south. => ………...………………………………………………………………. 35. He/ enjoy/ listen/ classical music/ relax in his free time. => ………...………………………………………………………………. 36. My uncle/ decide/ buy/ the/ expensive/ smartphone/ the shop/ yesterday. => ………...………………………………………………………………. Part 3: Write a paragraph (about 60-80 words) about the film with a robot /robots, including the information in the box. (1.0 pt) - the name of the film - the name (s) of the robot (s) - what it /they can do - how you feel about the film …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… The end
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 (RIGHT ON) ĐỀ I A> HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG : Tổng cộng 10 điểm I. LISTENING: 2,5 điểm Part 1: 1,25 điểm = 0,25 x 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,25 điểm = 0,25 x 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm II. LANGUAGE: 2,5 điểm Part 1: 2.0 điểm = 0,25 x 8. Mỗi câu đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 0,5 điểm = 0,25 x 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm III. READING: 2,5 điểm Part 1: 1,25 điểm = 0,25 x 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,25 điểm = 0,25 x 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm IV. WRITING: 2,5 điểm Part 1: 0,5 điểm = 0,25 x 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 3: 1,0 điểm *Trong quá trình chấm bài, nếu học sinh làm khác đáp án nhưng vẫn đúng thì giáo viên linh hoạt ghi điểm cho các em trong phạm vi số điểm qui định. B> ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM: PHÂN NỘI DUNG ĐIỂM I. LISTENING 2,5 điểm Part 1 1.25 điểm 1 F 0.25đ 2 T 0.25đ 3 T 0.25đ 4 F 0.25đ 5 T 0.25đ Part 2 1.25 điểm 6 D. Da Lat 0.25đ 7 B. 6 a.m 0.25đ 8 A. At a restaurant 0.25đ 9 C. Love Valley 0.25đ 10 B. 3 days 0.25đ II. 2.5 điểm LANGUAGE: Part 1 2.0 điểm 11 B. IT technician 0.25đ 12 C. to be 0.25đ 13 D. don’t have 0.25đ 14 B. environmentally-friendly 0.25đ 15 C. fly 0.25đ 16 B. boring 0.25đ 17 A. engineer 0.25đ 18 C. click 0.25đ Part 2 0.5 điểm
19 permission 0.25đ 20 attractions 0.25đ III. READING 2.5 điểm Part 1 1.25 điểm 21 B. in 0.25đ 22 A. to remember 0.25đ 23 C. smartphones 0.25đ 24 B. an 0.25đ 25 D. Although 0.25đ Part 2 1.25 điểm 26 R 0.25đ 27 R 0.25đ 28 DS 0.25đ 29 W 0.25đ 30 R 0.25đ IV. WRITING 2.5 điểm Part 1 0.5 điểm 31 Travelling by train is more expensive than travelling 0.25đ by bus. 32 You mustn’t bring a smartphone to the exam room. 0.25đ Part 2 1.0 điểm 33 It is colder in the north of Viet Nam than in the south. 0.25đ 34 My uncle decided to buy the most expensive 0.25đ smartphone in the shop yesterday. 35 He enjoys listening to classical music to relax in his free 0.25đ time. 36 Lan has the longest hair in her / the class. 0.25đ Part 3 1.0 điểm - Cohesion: (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; 0.2 nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) - Accuracy (morphology, vocabulary, spelling): Có sự 0.3 chính xác trong việc sử dụng cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng 0.4 - Ideas : (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề) 0.1 - Length: (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định: không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn) BGH duyệt TTCM duyệt GV ra đề Võ Thị Mỹ Phú Trần Tố Uyên
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 (RIGHT ON) ĐỀ II A> HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG : Tổng cộng 10 điểm I. LISTENING: 2,5 điểm Part 1: 1,25 điểm = 0,25 x 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,25 điểm = 0,25 x 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm II. LANGUAGE: 2,5 điểm Part 1: 2.0 điểm = 0,25 x 8. Mỗi câu đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 0,5 điểm = 0,25 x 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm III. READING: 2,5 điểm Part 1: 1,25 điểm = 0,25 x 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,25 điểm = 0,25 x 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm IV. WRITING: 2,5 điểm Part 1: 0,5 điểm = 0,25 x 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 3: 1,0 điểm *Trong quá trình chấm bài, nếu học sinh làm khác đáp án nhưng vẫn đúng thì giáo viên linh hoạt ghi điểm cho các em trong phạm vi số điểm qui định. B> ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM: PHÂN NỘI DUNG ĐIỂM I. LISTENING 2,5 điểm Part 1 1.25 điểm 1 F 0.25đ 2 T 0.25đ 3 T 0.25đ 4 F 0.25đ 5 T 0.25đ Part 2 1.25 điểm 6 A. Da Lat 0.25đ 7 C. 6 a.m 0.25đ 8 B. At a restaurant 0.25đ 9 D. Love Valley 0.25đ 10 C. 3 days 0.25đ II. 2.5 điểm LANGUAGE: Part 1 2.0 điểm 11 D. fly 0.25đ 12 C. boring 0.25đ 13 B. engineer 0.25đ 14 D. click 0.25đ 15 C. IT technician 0.25đ 16 D. to be 0.25đ 17 A. don’t have 0.25đ 18 C. environmentally-friendly 0.25đ
Part 2 0.5 điểm 19 permission 0.25đ 20 attractions 0.25đ III. READING 2.5 điểm Part 1 1.25 điểm 21 C. in 0.25đ 22 B. to remember 0.25đ 23 D. smartphones 0.25đ 24 C. an 0.25đ 25 A. Although 0.25đ Part 2 1.25 điểm 26 R 0.25đ 27 R 0.25đ 28 DS 0.25đ 29 W 0.25đ 30 R 0.25đ IV. WRITING 2.5 điểm Part 1 0.5 điểm 31 You mustn’t bring a smartphone to the exam room. 0.25đ 32 Travelling by train is more expensive than travelling 0.25đ by bus. Part 2 1.0 điểm 33 He enjoys listening to classical music to relax in his free 0.25đ time. 34 Lan has the longest hair in her / the class. 0.25đ 35 It is colder in the north of Viet Nam than in the south. 0.25đ 36 My uncle decided to buy the most expensive 0.25đ smartphone in the shop yesterday. Part 3 1.0 điểm - Cohesion: (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; 0.2 nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) - Accuracy (morphology, vocabulary, spelling): Có sự 0.3 chính xác trong việc sử dụng cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng 0.4 - Ideas : (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề) 0.1 - Length: (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định: không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn) BGH duyệt TTCM duyệt GV ra đề Võ Thị Mỹ Phú Trần Tố Uyên
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 (RIGHT ON) ĐỀ III A> HƯỚNG DẪN CHUNG : Tổng cộng 10 điểm I. LISTENING: 2,5 điểm Part 1: 1,25 điểm = 0,25 x 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,25 điểm = 0,25 x 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm II. LANGUAGE: 2,5 điểm Part 1: 2.0 điểm = 0,25 x 8. Mỗi câu đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 0,5 điểm = 0,25 x 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm III. READING: 2,5 điểm Part 1: 1,25 điểm = 0,25 x 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,25 điểm = 0,25 x 5. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm IV. WRITING: 2,5 điểm Part 1: 0,5 điểm = 0,25 x 2. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 2: 1,0 điểm = 0,25 x 4. Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm Part 3: 1,0 điểm *Trong quá trình chấm bài, nếu học sinh làm khác đáp án nhưng vẫn đúng thì giáo viên linh hoạt ghi điểm cho các em trong phạm vi số điểm qui định. B> ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM: PHÂN NỘI DUNG ĐIỂM I. LISTENING 2,5 điểm Part 1 1.25 điểm 1 F 0.25đ 2 T 0.25đ 3 T 0.25đ 4 F 0.25đ 5 T 0.25đ Part 2 1.25 điểm 6 B. Da Lat 0.25đ 7 D. 6 a.m 0.25đ 8 C. At a restaurant 0.25đ 9 A. Love Valley 0.25đ 10 D. 3 days 0.25đ II. 2.5 điểm LANGUAGE: Part 1 2.0 điểm 11 A. click 0.25đ 12 D. IT technician 0.25đ 13 A. to be 0.25đ 14 A. fly 0.25đ 15 D. boring 0.25đ 16 C. engineer 0.25đ 17 B. don’t have 0.25đ 18 D. environmentally-friendly 0.25đ Part 2 0.5 điểm