Bộ 7 đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án)
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“Bộ 7 đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án)” giúp các em học sinh ôn tập kiến thức chuẩn bị cho bài thi giữa học kì 2 sắp tới, rèn luyện kỹ năng giải đề thi để các em nắm được toàn bộ kiến thức chương trình Tiếng Anh lớp 6. Chúc các em ôn tập kiểm tra đạt kết quả cao.
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Nội dung Text: Bộ 7 đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án)
Đề Thi Giữa Học Kì 2 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 Năm 2020-2021 (Có đáp án)
1. Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 - Trường THCS Đông Hòa
PART I. LISTENING.
I. Listen and write True( T) or False (F). (1 Mark)
1. ……..The Royal Palace is one of the largest palace in Asia.
2………Today, the Old town has somes cafas and restaurants.
3……....There are about 5.000 people living in the Old town.
4……....The Nobel Prize is presented by the Swedish King.
II.Listen then choose the best answer. (1 Mark)
1. Sweden’s capital is built on ………island and has a 700 year-old history.
A. 12 B. 14 C. 10 D. 9
2. The oldest part of Stockholm is the…………….Town.
A. old B. new C. beautiful D. big
3. There are about 3,000 people …………. in the Old Town today.
A. live B. lives C. living D. lived
4. On the 10 …………...,the day when Alfred Nobel died.
A. October B. May C. November D. December
PART II. LANGUAGE
I. Pronunciation: (1 Mark)
1. A. bicycle B. light C. write D. dirty
2. A. pair B. there C. here D. where
3. A. than B. anything C. Thanksgiving D. theatre
4.A.come B.city C. cook D. close
II. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (2 Marks)
1. .................... do you go to school ? - I go to school 6 days a week
A. How often B. How C. What D. Why
2. I like listening to music,………….. my sister likes reading book.
A. because B. but C. or D. and
3. Tom ................... to the zoo last Sunday.
A. go B. goes C. went D. gone
4. This house is the........................ on this street.
A. expensive B. more expensive C. expensivest D. most expensive
5. I love ……………. Tom and Jerry are my favourite characters.
A. romances B. comedies C. documentaries D. cartoons
6. Could you turn ………… the volume please? I can’t hear that singer very well.
A. up B. down C. on D. off
7. Phuc …………….. table tennis everyday
A. plans B. plays C. plants D. puts
8. My father ……………..Japan three times.
A. visit B. will visit C. has visited D. visited
PART III.READING:
Popular TV programs
Pop music: Pop music, or pop, is the short form of ' popular music'. Pop music is for a broad audience. Teengers like to listen to the latest pop music and see the shows of their favourite artists. Usually bands and singers perform their latest song on TV.
Contests: Contests are very popular TV programs. There are contests of knowledge, contests of folk music, games, sports and so on. The contestants are students, workers, or family members. In some contests, TV viewers can join in and answer questions through telephone or by mail.
Imports: Imports are foreign series such as Sherlock Holmes. Most imports include police and hospital series. TV stations all over the world show these programs because they can buy them cheaply.
I. Read the text and choose the best answer by circlingA, B, C or D (1 marks).
1. Bands and singers ……………………… their latest song on TV.
A. perform B. performs C. performance D. performer
2. There are contests of knowledge, contests of ………………………., games, sports.
A. music and art B. musical C. pop music D. folk music
3. Who are the contestants in contest programs ?
A. The contestants was students, workers, or family members.
B. The contestants is student, worker, or family member.
C. The contestants are students, workers, or family members.
D. The contestants were students, workers, or family members.
4. Why do TV stations all over the world show the imported programs ?
A. Because most imports include police and hospital series.
B. Because they can buy them cheaply.
C. Because they are very interesting.
D. Because TV viewers can join in and answer questions through telephone.
II. Read the postcard and tick () True or False. (1 Mark)
Dear Jane,
How are you getting on? I am going to visit Singapore with my parents next weekend. We are going to stay at my uncle’s house near the habour. My uncle is going to show us round the city in the morning. In the afternoon we are going to visit the habour. In the evening we are going to Santosa.
We are going to enjoy the animal show there.
We hope it will not rain.
Love,
Mai
Statements | True | False |
1. Mai is going to visit Singapore next weekend. | ||
2. She is going to stay in the hotel near the habour. | ||
3. Her uncle is going to show her round the city. | ||
4. She is going to Santosa in the afternoon. |
2. Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 - Trường THCS Huỳnh Thị Lựu
A. Language Components, speaking (3,0 pts)
I. Choose the word (A, B, C or D) which is pronounced differently from the others (0,75 pt)
1. A. there B. them C. than D. thanks
2. A. here B. where C. there D. prepare
3. A. snow B. window C. now D. borrow
II. Choose the best answer A,B,C or D to complete the sentences (2,25 pts)
4. A person who reads the news on television or radio is a .. ……………………....
A. MC B. newsreader C. weatherman D. weathergirl
5. He sometimes goes ………………. with his father at weekends.
A. badminton B. table tennis C. swimming D. football
6. He climbed Mount Fansipan when he ……………. in Sapa.
A. is B. were C. are D. was
7. ………Minh likes sport programmes, he watches this animal programme with his family
A. so B. although C. because D. and
8. A: ………… do people like watching game shows?
B: Because they are educational and entertaining.
A. Why B. What C. How D. Who
9. –“What a nice T- shirt, Trang!”- “ ………………..”
A. You’re welcome. B. Thank you. C. Great. D. Well.
10. Huyen hasn't _________ to school for three days.
A. go B. went C. gone D. to go
11. My hometown is __________ countryside in Quang Nam.
A. the most peaceful B. most peaceful C. the peacefullest D. more peaceful
12. A: What would you like to drink now? B:……………………………….
A. No, thank you B. Yes, please C.Orange juice,please D. I like to do nothing
B. Reading: (2,5 pts)
I. Fill in the blank with a word in the box to complete the passage: (1,5pt)
located | capital | are | buildings | large | Seoul |
Seoul is South korea’s (1)…….. It is (2)……….. in the northern part of South Korea. It has a population of nearly 10 million people. In this city you can find many tall (3)………. and skyscrapers. Seoul is known around the world as technology capital. It has a (4)……. subway system. Incheon International Airport is a forty minute train ride from Seoul. Gangnam, Itaewon and Hongdae are popular neighbourhoods in (5)………… Here you can find bustling downtown district, social life, shopping and great dining. The War Memorial of Korea and Namsan Seoul tower (6)…….. popular tourist destinations in Seoul.
II. Reread the passage and answer the questions (1,0 pt)
7. Where is Seoul? …………………………………………………………………………………….
8. How many people live in Seoul ? …………………………………………………………………..
9. Is Seoul a technology capital ? ……………………………………………………………………..
10. What are popular tourist destinations in Seoul? ………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………… …………….
C. Writing: (2,0 pts) Do these following sentences as directed( 2,5pts)
I. Arrange the words to make complete sentences (0,5pt)
1. but/ My brother/ I/ plays/ do not./ volleyball/ well/
…………………………………………………………………………………………………… …
2. Turn/the lights/ when/ leave/ the room./off/you /
……………………………………………………………………………………….
II. Make questions for the underlined words (0,5pt)
3. My favourite singer is My Tam.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. Last night, he watched a football match on TV
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
III. Rewrite the sentences (1pt)
5. I started to learn English 3 years ago.
I have……………………………………………………………………………………………
6. My father hasn’t driven a car before.
This is the first time…………………………………………………………………………………
IV. Complete the sentences, using the superlative of the words in brackets (0,5 pt)
7. This dress is ……………………….(expensive) in the clothing shop.
8. It is ………………………….. (boring) film I have ever seen.
3. Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 - Trường THCS Nguyễn Bỉnh Khiêm
I.LANGUAGE CONPONENT,SPEAKING TEST(3pts)
A.Find the word which has different pronounce from other (Tìm 1 từ có cách phát âm ở phần gạch chân khác các từ còn lại)
1. A. marathon B. earth C. both D. farther
2. A. hair B. fare C. speaker D. prepare
3. A. opening B. doctor C. gold D. postcard
B.Choose the best answer(Chọn đáp án đúng nhất để điền vào chỗ trống):
4. Big Ben is the ………..famous tower in England.
A. best B.most C. most D. better
5. How many players are there in a football match?
A. 20 B. 21 C.22 D. 23
6. Our school football team …………. the match with Nguyen Du school last Saturday.
A. wins B. won C. scores D. scored
7. I’d like to watch motor racing because it is …………..
A. excite B. boring C. excited D. exciting
8. How long does a football match last ?
A. 45 minutes B. 43 minutes C. 90 minutes D. 92 minutes
9. ……… sports do you like to watch on television?
A. How B. What C. Do D. How often
10. The Sydney Opera House is well- known in……………… as well as over the world.
A. Australia B. America C. The USA D. Italy
11. He likes playing basketball…………..it is so funny.
A. because B. so C. but D. although
12. It’s raining. ……………… your umbrella.
A. Put B. Do C. Take D. Hold
II. READING: (2,5pts)
A. Read the passage and fill in the gap(Đọc đoạn văn sau , điền các từ vào chỗ trống): (1,5pt)
regarded | career | well-known | player | countyside | goals |
Edson Arantes do Nascimento, better known as Pele, is widely (1)…………………as the best football player of all time. Pele was born on October 21st,1940 in the (2)…………………..of Brazil. Pele’s father was a professional football (3)…………….and taught Pele how to play at a very young age.
Pele began his(4)………………… at the age of 15 when he started playing for Santos Football Club. In 1958, at the age of 17, Pele won his first World Cup. It was the first time the world cup was shown on TV. People around the world watched Pele play and cheered.
Pele won three World Cups and scored 1,281(5)……………….. in his 22- year career. In 1999, he was voted Football Player of the Century. Pele is a national hero in Brazil. During his career he became (6)……………………around the world as the King of football.
B. Read the text again and answer the questions. (Đọc lại đoạn văn rồi trả lời câu hỏi) : (1 pt )
1. When was Pele born? ……………………………………………………………..
2. Why do people call him “The King of Football”?………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. How many goals did he score in total? ...............................................................
4. Is he regarded as the best football player of all time? ……………………………….
III.WRITING(2,5pts)
A.Arrange the words to make complete sentences ( Sắp xếp các từ xáo trộn thành câu có nghĩa)(0,5pt)
1. the/ Da Nang/ is/ modern/most/city/Viet Nam/in
…………………………………………………………………..
2. Although /is / she/short,/ still/ plays/ she/ basketball.
………………………………………………………………….
B. Make question for the underlined words (Đặt câu hỏi cho phần gạch chân)(0,5pt)
1. A football match has 22 players …………………… …………………………………………….
2. Great Wall is in China or Korea. ………………………………………………………………….
C. Rewrite the sentences so that it means the same as the first.(Viết lại câu nghĩa không thay đổi)(1pt)
1. Teacher wants the students not to litter.
→Teacher says “................................................, please”.
2. I last saw him 2 weeks ago.
I haven’t ……………………………………..
D. Complete the sentences with the correct form of words in brackets(Hoàn thành câu với hình thức đúng của từ trong ngoặc)(0,5pt)
1. Tom and Jerry is …………….…………cartoon I have ever seen (exciting).
2. His father (buy) ………………….a new bike yesterday.
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