Tham khảo “Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Chu Văn An, Hội An” để giúp các em làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi, đồng thời ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức căn bản trong chương trình học. Tham gia giải đề thi để ôn tập và chuẩn bị kiến thức và kỹ năng thật tốt cho kì thi sắp diễn ra nhé!
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Nội dung Text: Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Chu Văn An, Hội An
- MA TRẬN KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
Môn: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 9 – Chương trình 10 năm
(KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ + 3 KỸ NĂNG)
PARTS No. of Ma Task types Re Com Low High
Ques rk App App
TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL
Pronunciation: Circle the word which has a
2 0.5 different sound in the underlined part 0,5
Circle the word which has a different stress in
the underlined part 0,25
LANGUAGE 1 0,25
COMPONENT
(3,0)
3 0,25 Vocabulary: MCQ: circle the best answer 0,75
Grammar :MCQs: Circle the best option
6 1,5 0.5
0.5 0,5
Read the text and choose the correct
READING 6 1,5 0.5 0.5 0.5
answer:
(2,5) Read the text and fill in the blank
4 1,0 1.0
2 0,5 (Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D
which is not correct in standard English 0,5
2 1,0 (Sentence building) Write complete
WRITING sentences from the words given. 0.5 0.5
(2,5)
4 1,0 (Sentence transformation) Rewrite the
sentences so as its meaning keeps
unchanged 1,0
- 4 1,0 - Listen and write T/F 1,0
LISTENING
(2,0) 4 1,0 - Listen and fill in the blank
1,0
TOTAL(10,0) 38 10.0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0
- SPECIFICATION FORTHE 2nd MID-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 9)
PART CONTENTS No. of Mark Task types Re
Com Low High
Ques App App
S
TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL
Pronunciation: Pronunciation: Circle the
-Q1: sounds / æ// ə/ jʊ ʌ word which has a different
-Q2: sounds / jʊ / ʌ / sound in the underlined part
3 0.75 Circle the word which has a 0.75
different stress in the
-Q3: Stress in first-syllable words underlined part
and second-syllable words.
LANG
UAGE Vocabulary: Vocabulary: MCQs: Read the
COMP -Q4: 1 word about tourism text and fill in the blank with
ONEN -Q5: 1 word about tourism 3 1.0 suitable words from the box 0,75
T -Q6: 1 word about tourism
(3,0)
Grammar: Grammar: MCQs: Circle the
-Q7: 1 word about compound noun best option
-Q8: 1 question about the 1st
3 0,5 0.25
conditional sentence. (unless) 0,5
-Q9: 1 question about the 2nd
conditional sentence (weren’t)
-Q10: 1 question about relative Grammar: MCQs: Circle the
clause (that) best option
-Q11: 1 question about Quantifiers 3 0.75
(some) 0.5 0.25
-Q12: 1 question about the 1st
conditional sentence. (will)
- READ
ING 0.5 0,5
(2,5) 6 1.5 0.5
-Q13: 1 question about noun phrase
- Q14: 1 question about a verb
- Q15: 1 question about a noun
- Q16: 1 question about a noun
- Q17: 1 question about a noun
- Q18: 1 question about a noun
- Q19: Fill a word about verb 4 1.0
- Q20: Fill a word about article
1.0
- Q21: Fill a word about prep
- Q22: Fill a word about prep
-Q23: Identify the error about relative 2 0,5 (sentence building) Write
clause complete sentences from the
-Q24: Identify the error about words given.
conditional sentence
-Q25: Building sentence about the 2nd 2 0.5
conditional sentence (were) Rearrange the words to make a
-Q26: Building sentence about relative meaningful sentence
WRIT
clause (who)
ING
0,5 0.5 0.5 1.0
(2,5) (Error identification) Find and
make a meaningful sentence (passive) 4 0.75
correct the mistakes in each
-Q27: Rewrite sentence about relative sentence.
clause (which)
-Q28: Rewrite sentence about
conditional sentence
-Q29 Rewrite sentence about
superlative
- - Q30: Rewrite sentence about 0.25 (sentence transformation)
conditional sentence Rewrite the sentences so as
their meaning keeps unchanged
-Q31-34: Match the answers about 4 1,0 - Listen to what they say and
speaking and learning languages decide if the statements are
1.0
true (T) or false (F) about their
eating habits
-Q35-38: Fill a word about Recipes 4 1,0 - Listen and Fill each blank
LISTE And Eating Habits with a word about tourism
NING
(2,0) 1,0
38 10.0
4.0 3.0 2.0 1.0
TOTA
L(10,0)
- THE 2nd MID-TERM TEST Date of
Full-name: …………....………… ENGLISH 9 - 45 minutes testing:
Class: 9/ .......................................
Marks: Teacher’s comment:
I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT: (3,0 marks)
(1,2) Find the word which has a different sound in the part underlined.
1. A. accent B. factor C. anniversary D. variety
2. A. stimulate B. puree C. confusion D. rusty
(3) Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others
3. A. tender B. garnish C. language D. bilingual
(4-12) Choose the best answer for each of the following sentences.
4. She _______ up some Spanish when she was living in Mexico.
A. took B. looked C. picked D. learnt
5. Teachers provide a model for children to _________.
A. allow B. behave C. change D. imitate
6. It's good to have someone to ____ you when you are visiting a new place.
A. lead B. take C. guide D. bring
7. In comparison with the exotic pictures in the brochure, the resort was a real .
A. bystander B. take away C. letdown D. checkout
8. We won’t go out __________ it stops raining.
A. if B. if not C. unless D. when
9. If there __________ gravity, water wouldn’t run downhill.
A. aren’t B. isn’t C. weren’t D. hadn’t
10. I saw a lot of people and horses __________ went to the market this morning.
A. which B. who C. whom D. that
11. Would you like ____________ black coffee, please?
A. a B. an C. some D. any
12. If Mary studies harder, she ____________ pass the final examination.
A. must B. might C. could D. will
II. READING: (2,5 marks)
(13-18) Read the following passage about English and answer the questions
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant
language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after
having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of
1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended
even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two centuries, English
began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonisation,
and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers became established and grew in various
parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language
of international business, banking and diplomacy.
Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is English. Two-
thirds of the world's science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology,
advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700
million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest
number of nonnative users than any other language in the world.
- 13. What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The number of non-native users of English
B. The French influence on the English language
C. The expansion of English as an international language
D. The use of English for science and technology
14.In the first paragraph, the word “emerged” is closest in meaning to.
A. appeared B. hailed C. frequented D. engaged
15. In the first paragraph, the word “elements” is closest in meaning to.
A. declaration B. features C. curiosities D. customs
16. Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?
A. In 1066 B. Around 1350 C. Before 1600 D. After the 1600s
17. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the
world EXCEPT ________.
A. the slave trade B. the Norman invasion C. missionaries D. colonization
18. The word "enclaves" in line 10 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. communities B. organizations C. regions D. countries
(19-22) Read the passage about Son Doong and fill a suitable word in each numbered gap.
….. and nearly 9 kilometres long, with caverns big enough to fit an entire street inside them. Son Doong
Cave (19) _______________ recognised as the largest cave in the world by BCRA (British Cave
Research Association) and selected as one of (20) _______________ most beautiful on earth (21)
_______________ the BBC (British Broadcasting Corporation). In August 2013, the first tourist group
explored the cave on a guided tour. Permits are now required to access the cave and are made available
on a limited basis. Only 500 permits were issued for the 2015 season, which runs from February to
August. (22) _______________ August, heavy rains cause river levels to rise and make the cave largely
inaccessible.
III. WRITING: (2,5 marks) (23-30) Do as Directed.
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that needs correcting.(0.5 pt)
23. The man whom remained in the office was the manager.
A B C D
24. If someone came into the store, smile and say, “May I help you?”
A B C D
Complete the sentences with the words given (1 pt)
25. If I – be – the Prime Minister, I – spend more money on education.
______________________________________________________________________
26. This greeting card is – a friend – used – study – me – primary school.
______________________________________________________________________
+27-30. Rewrite the following sentences so that their meanings stay the same (1 pt)
27. I don’t know her number, so I don’t ring her up. (IF)
=> ___________________________________________________________________
28. His book became the best seller. It was published last year. (WHICH)
=>__________________________________________________________________
- 29. No mountains in Western Europe are higher than Mount Blanc. (THE)
=>Mount Blanc Western Europe.
30. People who do a lot of exercise stay fit and healthy.
=> If you
IV. LISTENING: (2,0 marks)
(31-34) Listen to what they say and decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear
the conversation twice.
T F
31. Nicolas gets up too late to have a real breakfast.
32. It’s difficult to buy his lunch at the school canteen.
33. He’s considering changing his eating habits.
34. Both Maya and her brother have good eating habits.
(35-38) Listen to the talk again. Fill each blank with a word/phrase. You will hear the conversation
twice.
35. Tourism has changed a lot over the past few decades. It is actually quite a new thing.
It probably didn’t fifty years ago
36. I guess tourism started in the late 60s and early 70s when airplane travel cheap.
37. Tourism today is a multi-billion-dollar .
38. Tourism really is the world a global village.
- ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM CHẤM
MÔN TIẾNG ANH 9
I. LANGUAGE COMPONENT: (3,0 marks)
I. (1-12) (3,0 điểm – 12 câu - mỗi câu đúng 0,25)
1D 2D 3 D. bilingual 4.C. picked 5.D. imitate 6.C. guide
7.C. letdown 8 C 9C 10 D 11 C 12 D
II. READING: (2,5 marks)
II. (13-22) (2,5 điểm - 10 câu - mỗi câu đúng 0,25)
13. C The expansion of English as an international language
14. A. appeared
15. B. features
16. D. After the 1600s
17. B. the Norman invasion
18. C. regions
19 is 21 by
20 the 22 after
III. WRITING: (2,5 marks)
III. (23-32) (2,5 điểm – 10 câu - mỗi câu đúng 0,25)
23. B
24. B
25. If he (be) were a prime minister, he would spend more money on education.
26. This greeting card is from a friend who used to study with me at primary school
27. If I knew her number, I would ring her up.
28. His book, which was published last year, became the best seller.
29. is the highest mountain in
30. If you do a lot of exercise, you will stay fit and healthy.
IV. LISTENING: (2,0 marks) (31-38) (2,0 điểm – 8 câu - mỗi câu đúng 0,25)
(31-34) Listen to what they say and decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F).
You will hear the conversation twice.
31.T 32.F 33.T 34.F
(35-38) Listen to the talk again. Fill each blank with a word/phrase. You will hear the conversation
twice.
35. Tourism has changed a lot over the past few decades. It is actually quite a new thing.
It probably didn’t exist fifty years ago
36. I guess tourism started in the late 60s and early 70s when airplane travel became cheap.
37. Tourism today is a multi-billion-dollar industry.
38. Tourism really is making the world a global village.
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