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Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Phước Thành, Phước Sơn

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“Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Phước Thành, Phước Sơn” sau đây sẽ giúp bạn đọc nắm bắt được cấu trúc đề thi, từ đó có kế hoạch ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức một cách bài bản hơn, chuẩn bị tốt cho kỳ thi sắp. Mời các bạn cùng tham khảo nội dung chi tiết.

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 8 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Phước Thành, Phước Sơn

  1. UBND HUYỆN PHƯỚC SƠN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ II TRƯỜNG TH&THCS PHƯỚC THÀNH MÔN: ANH VĂN 8 Họ và tên :……………………….....…...... NĂM HỌC: 2022 - 2023 Lớp :……………………………...………. Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) ĐIỂM LỜI PHÊ CỦA GIÁO VIÊN A. LISTENING (2,0 pts) Part 1. Listen to the conversation between Tom and Jack. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D. (1,0 pt) 1. What is the interview about? A. A present. B. A birsthday present. C. A teenager’s hobby. D. How to make origami. 2. What is Jack’s hobby? A. Creating paper. B. Folding paper. C. Recycling paper. D. Reusing paper. 3. How long has he had his hobby? A. For two years. B. For two months. C. For two weeks. D. For three years. 4. What does Jack say about his hobby? A. It’s cheap. B. It’s easy. C. It’s difficult. D. It’s expensive. 5. Which among these that Jack doesn’t do with the things he made? A. Sell them. B. Keep them in a box. C. Give them to his friends. D. Give them to his mother. Part 2. Listen to Annie talking about the Internet. Decide if the statements are true(T)or false (F). Circle T or F. You will listen TWICE. (1,0 pt) Statement T F 6. Annie thinks the Internet is the greatest invention. 7. Annie does her homework on the Internet. 8. Annie loves emails. 9. Annie spends little time on the Internet. 10. Annie puts a lot of her personal information on Facebook. B. LANGUAGE COMPONENT (2,0 pts) I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D next to the word whose underlined part is stressed differently form the others. (0,4 pt) 11. A. Christmas. B. character. C. chemistry. D. brochure. 12. A. young. B. drought. C. discount. D. sound. II. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete each sentence. (1,6 pts) 13. ____________ is often called “The Windy City”. A. Hawaii. B. New York. C. San D. Chicago.
  2. Fransico. 14. English is an _________ language in Singapore. A. office. B. official. C. officer. D. officially. 15. Angkor Wat is one of the largest __________in the world. A. wonders. B. temples. C. churches. D. pagodas. 16. “ Do you mind if I take a photo? ” - “__________”. A. I hope so. B. Don’t C. No problem. D. I’d rather you didn’t. forget 17. Last Sunday, Mr. Viet__________his children to Thu Le Zoo. A. got. B. brought. C. fetch. D. took. 18. Would you mind if I____________ TV? A. watch. B. watched. C. watching. D. watches. 19. My father bought this house 2 years ago. A. This house were bought 2 years ago. B. This house bought by my father 2 years ago. C. This house 2 years ago is bought by my father. D. This house was bought by my father 2 years ago. 20. Jane __________ his grandfather this weekend. A. will visit. B. visiting. C. will visited. D. visit. C. READING (2,0 pts) I. Read the text and fill in the blank with suitable words from the box. (1,0 pt) environment diseases pollution emission upgrading If you wander on the streets of Ha Noi, the capital of Viet Nam, you may be surprised that most people are wearing masks, hiding their faces. This is because of serious air (21) ____________ in this city. Between March 1 and 4, 2016, the air quality index of Ha Noi, as measured by the US Embassy in Ha Noi was over 350. At this level, air pollution can cause lots of respiratory (22) ___________, especially to children and the elderly. The major cause of air pollution in Ha Noi is traffic. Due to the increasing number of motorcycles and cars in the last decade, the (23) ____________ of chemical exhausts has been on a constant rise. Another reason is urban construction, including road (24) projects and residential buildings. People have to live with the dust and dirt throughout the city. Environmental experts have warned that if the city continues to develop its economy with little regard to the (25) __________, the consequence will be tragic. II. Read the text and write T for true statements and F for the false ones. (1,0 pt)
  3. Saving the Environment: One Home at a Time Pollution can be seen not only throughout the world, but also in our own homes. It comes from household chemicals, the amount of water people use and the waste people produce and throw away. What can be done to stop this pollution? Surprisingly, a person can help save the environment by doing simple things. First, we need to recycle, which allows products to be used over and over again. Recycling can also reduce the number of trees cut down to produce paper products. It takes very little effort. It is not hard to place plastic and glass bottles, aluminum cans and paper in a bin. Anyone can do it. Second, we need to watch the amount of water used at home. It can be conserved by taking short showers instead of baths, repairing leaky faucets, using the dishwasher or washing machine only when fully loaded, or simply turning the faucet off while brushing your teeth. Third, we need to reduce waste. We need to recycle whenever possible, but should also try to use this waste effectively. For example, grass clippings and food scraps can be made into compost for plants. The average person produces 4.3 pounds of waste every day, but we can reduce that amount by recycling and reusing. If we do our part in our own homes, we can help keep the planet from becoming more polluted. 26. Pollution is caused from the following sources EXCEPT. A. waster B. water in rivers. C. water from households. D. house chemicals. 27. Recycling can help us. A. never cut down trees. B. place garbage bins easily. C. use products again and again. D. produce more paper products. 28. In order to save water, we can do all of the following things except. A. repair leaky faucets. B. fully use the washing machine. C. take short showers instead of baths. D. turn the faucet off while brushing your teeth. 29. The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to. A. Cutting down. B. The number. C. Recycling. D. Effort. 30. What is the best title for the passage? A. Pollution and and its effects on our life. B. Environmental pollution and its causes. C. Simple things can help to protect the environment. D.Three causes of pollution that we should take into consideration. D. WRITING (2,0 pts) I. Circle A, B, C or D which is not correct in standard English. (0,4 pts) 31. We should use vegetable matter making animal food. A B C D 32. Do you mind if I took some photos of you? A B C D II. Rewrite the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged. (0,8 pts) 33. Shall I stay here ?  Do you mind if….……………………………..……………………….………… 34. My father bought a car yesterday.  A car…………..…………………………………..…………………………...…
  4. 35. " Are you a doctor?". Nam asked me.  Nam asked me if…………………………….……….…………………….….. … 36. It is a contest in which participants have to make fire. (compound word)  It is a……………………………………………………………………….…….. III. Write complete sentences from the words given. (0,8 pts) 37. Last week/ my class/ have/ day/ remember. …………………………………………………………………….......................... 38. The Le family/ sleep/ when/ the mailman/ came. ………………………………………………………........................................... .. ------------The end----------- UBND HUYỆN PHƯỚC SƠN HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM TRƯỜNG TH&THCS PHƯỚC THÀNH ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ II MÔN: ANH VĂN 8 NĂM HỌC: 2022 - 2023 (Kiến thức ngôn ngữ + 3 kỹ năng) A. LISTENING (2,0 pts) I. (1,0 điểm) Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B II. (1,0 điểm) Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm 6. T 7. F 8. T 9. F 10. F B. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS (2,0 pts) I. (0,4 điểm) Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm 11. D 12. A II. (1,6 điểm) Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm 13. D. 14. B. (official) 15. B. (temples) 16. D. (I’d (Chicago) rather you didn’t) 17. D. (took) 18. B. 19. D. (This house was 20. A. (will (watched) bought by my father 2 visit) years ago)
  5. C. READING (2,0 pts) I. (1,0 điểm) Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm 21. pollution 22. diseases 23. emission 24. 25. environmen upgrading t II. (1,0 điểm) Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm 26. 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. C B D. WRITING (2,0 pts) I. (0,4 điểm) Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 31. D (making made) 32. C (took  take) II. (0,8 điểm) Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0,2 điểm 33. Do you mind if I stay here? 34. A car was bought yesterday by my father. 35. Nam asked me if I were a doctor. 36. It is a fire-making contest. III. (0,8 điểm) Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0,4 điểm 37. Last week, my class had a day to remember. 38. The Le family was sleeping when the mailman came. ----------- HẾT ---------- UBND HUYỆN PHƯỚC SƠN HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM TRƯỜNG TH&THCS PHƯỚC THÀNH ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ II MÔN: ANH VĂN 8 NĂM HỌC: 2022 - 2023 (Kỹ năng nói – Speaking test) I. Introduction: (0,4 point) - Students introduce personal information (name, old, class, school, friend, hobby, …) - Examiner asks 2 questions for each student and examiner may ask more questions if student could not answer. - 0,2 point for each suitable answer. II. Topic speaking: (1,0 point) - There are some topics in English 8 - Student randomly take one vocabulary topic. - Student has 5 minutes for preparation. - Student looks at the pictures and answer 5 questions:
  6. 1. “What is this?” 2. Student spells one word. 3. 1 vocabulary in situation. 4. 1 vocabulary in situation. 5. Student points the word form teacher’s explanation. - The examiner considers student’s answer and then gives mark. - 0,2 point for each suitable answer. III. Questions and answers: (0,6 point) - Each student has to answer 3 questions about one of the topics. - 0,2 point for each suitable answer. (Tùy theo mức độ đạt được của học sinh, giáo viên quyết định điểm cho phù hợp.) UBND HUYỆN PHƯỚC SƠN ĐẶC TẢ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI TRƯỜNG TH&THCS PHƯỚC THÀNH MÔN: ANH VĂN 8 NĂM HỌC: 2022 - 2023 CONTEN No. of C Low App PARTS Mark TS Ques o m TN TL TN TL - Q1-5: - Listen to Choose the the best recording 5 1,0 1,0 answer. and circle LISTENIN the G appropriate (2,0) answer Q6-10: Listen and tick T or F Listen to 6. T the 5 1,0 recording 1,0 7. F 8. T and tick T 9. F or F 10. F Pronunciat LANGUA ion: GE - Q11: Indicate the COMPON sounds word whose ENT /ʃ/, /k with underlined (2,0) the answer part is (lived) 2 0,4 0,4 stressed - Q12: differently sounds form the /ə/, /aʊ/ others with the answer (christmas) Vocabulary 3 0,6 0,2 : - Q13: 1 MCQs: 0,4 word about Circle the country best option with the answer (Chicago)
  7. - Q14: 1 word about language with the answer (official) - Q15: 1 word about world wonder with the answer (temples) Grammar points: - Q16: 1 sentence about the reply request with the answer (I’d rather you didn’t ) - Q17: 1 sentence about the past simple with the answer (took) - Q18: 1 sentence about the “mind” MCQs: 5 1,0 0,4 request Circle the with the best option answer (watched) - Q19: 1 sentence about the passive voice with the answer (This house was bought by my father 2 years ago). - Q20: 1 sentence about the future simple with the answer (will visit) READING Q21-25: 1,0 (Cloze test) 0,8 0,2 (2,0) Fill in the 5 Read the blank text and fill - Q21: 1 in the blank word about (with a noun suitable with the words from answer the box) (pollution) - Q22: 1
  8. word about a noun with the answer (diseases) - Q23: 1 word about a noun with the answer (emission) - Q24: 1 word about a verb with the answer (upgrading ) - Q25: 1 1 word about a noun with the answer (environme nt) - Q26-30: 5 1,0 Read the 0,8 Circle the text and best answer circle the - Q26: Find best answer the incorrect statement with the answe (water in rivers) -Q27: Find the incorrect statement with the answer (use products again and again) - Q28: Find the incorrect statement with the answer (fully use the washing machine) - Q29: 1 question for find the word prefer to with the answer (recycling) - Q30: 1 question for a WH- question with the answer (Simple things can help to protect the
  9. environmen t) - Q31: 1 sentence about verb of Simplify relative (Error clauses in identificatio the passive: n) Circle A, Ved/3 with B, C or D the answer 2 0,4 0,4 which is not (making -> correct in made) standard - Q32: 1 English sentence about the requests. (took- >take) - Q33: 1 sentence about the structure request “Do you mind if” - Q34: 1 WRITING sentence (Sentence (2,0) about the transformati passive on) Rewrite voice the - Q35: 1 sentences sentence so as its 4 0,8 about the meaning structure keeps indirect unchanged question with if - Q36: 1 sentence about the structure compound word. - Q37: 1 sentence (Sentence about the building) past simple. Write - Q38: 1 complete sentence 2 0,8 sentences about the from the past words progressive given. with when. Total 2, 38 8,0 (8,0) 2 - Introduce personal information ( hobby, Introductio school, 2 0,4 0,4 n houses, family, SPEAKIN teacher, G subject…) (2,0) - Randomly 5 1,0 Topic 0,2 0,8
  10. take one vocab topic (Recycling, Travelling around Viet Nam, A vacation abroad, Festival, Wonders of the world….) -5 minutes for preparation - Look at the pictures speaking and answer the question “What is this?” -Spell one word - two vocabs in situation -Student point the word form teacher’s explanation -Answer three questions about one of the topics (Recycling, Questions Travelling 3 0,6 and around Viet Answers Nam, A vacation abroad, Festival, Wonders of the world….) Grand Total 3, 48 10,0 0 (10,0)
  11. UBND HUYỆN PHƯỚC SƠN MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA CUỐI HỌC KỲ TRƯỜNG TH&THCS PHƯỚC THÀNH MÔN: ANH VĂN 8 NĂM HỌC: 2022 - 2023 No. of PARTS Mar Task types Re Ques k TL TN TN TL TN 5 1,0 - Listen to the recording and circle 1,0 the appropriate LISTENIN answer G 5 (2,0) 1,0 - Listen to the recording about 1,0 neighborhoo d and tick T/F Pronunciati on: Indicate the word whose underlined 2 0,4 part is 0,4 stressed LANGUAG differently E form the COMPON others. ENT Vocabulary: (2,0) MCQs: 0,4 3 0,6 0,2 Circle the best option Grammar: MCQs: 0,4 0,6 5 1,0 Circle the best option Read the text and fill in the blank 5 1,0 (with 0,8 0,2 suitable READING words from (2,0) the box) Read the text and 5 1,0 0,8 0,2 circle the best answer 2 0,4 (Error WRITING identificatio (2,0) n) Circle A, B, C or D 0,4 which is not correct in standard English 4 0,8 (Sentence transformati on) Rewrite
  12. the sentences so as its meaning keeps unchanged 2 0,8 (Sentence building) Write complete sentences from the words given. TOTAL(10, 38 10.0 3,4 2,2 1,6 0) 2 0,4 Introduction 0,4 SPEAKIN 5 1,0 Topic G 0,2 0,8 speaking (2,0) 3 0,6 Questions and Answer Grand 48 10,0 Total 4,0 (10,0)
  13. 1. This is a landmark in London. What’s its name ? (P1) 2+3. What is it ? (P2,3,4,6,7,10,11,12) 4. This is a usually crowded place on the river. (P5) 5. Pronounce these words: (P8,) 6. This is a place that is usually very busy and crowded at night. (p9) III. Answer the questions: 1. Do you like travelling around the world? Why? 2. Have you ever been to a natural wonder? 3. Do you know New York ? Where is it? 4. Can you tell me some cities in the world that you know? 5. Do you think human should protect natural wonders ? Why? KEY FOR SPEAKING ENGLISH TEST UNIT 9 Part II: 1. Big Ben. 2. Merlion. 3. Palace.
  14. 4. Eiffel Tower. 5. floating market. 6. Stall. 7. Sydney Opera House. 8. Landscapes. 9. night martket. 10.Tourist. 11. Temples. 12.Postcard. 1 2 3 4
  15. 12 5 11 6
  16. 10 9 8 7 III. Questions and answers: 1. Where do you live? 2. Do you like living in the city? 3. Can you tell me some types of house in the future? 4. Can you tell me some types of house in the future? 5. What appliances might your future house have? 6. Which room do you like best in your future house? Why?
  17. Key Unit 13: 1. Christmas. 2. Mid - Fall festival. 3. Thanksgiving. 4. Halloween. 5. Easter. 6. Turkey.
  18. 7. painting eggs. 8. candy apples. 9. lion dance. Questions 1. Do you eat moon cakes at the Mid- Autumn Festival? 2. What do you often do Mid- Autumn Festival? 3. What festival did you join? 4. What do they eat at Halloween?
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