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Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Toán năm 2017 - Sở GD&ĐT Bắc Ninh - Mã đề 324

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Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Toán năm 2017 - Sở GD&ĐT Bắc Ninh - Mã đề 324 nhằm giúp học sinh ôn tập và củng cố lại kiến thức, đồng thời nó cũng giúp học sinh làm quen với cách ra đề và làm bài thi dạng trắc nghiệm.

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Toán năm 2017 - Sở GD&ĐT Bắc Ninh - Mã đề 324

  1. SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM 2017 PHÒNG KHẢO THÍ VÀ KIỂM ĐỊNH MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) (50 câu trắc nghiệm) ============= Mã đề thi: 324 Họ, tên thí sinh:..................................................................... SBD: .......................................... Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space from 1 to 5. Few people now question the reality of global warming and its effects on the world's climate. Many scientists put the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in the world's temperatures and are convinced that, more than ever before, the Earth is at (1)_________ from the force of the wind, rain and sun. According to them, global warming is making extreme weather events; such as hurricanes and droughts, even more (2)_________ and causing sea levels all around the world to (3)_________. Environmental groups are putting pressure on governments to take action to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide which is given (4)______ by factories and power plants, thus attacking the problem at its source. They are in favour of more money being spent on research into solar, wind and wave energy devices, which could then replace existing power stations. Some scientists, (5)_________, believe that even if we stopped releasing carbon dioxide and other gases into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to wait several hundred years to notice the results. Global warming, it seems, is to stay. Question 1: A. danger B. harm C. threat D. risk Question 2: A. strong B. severe C. heavy D. strike Question 3: A. arise B. lift C. raise D. rise Question 4: A. off B. up C. away D. over Question 5: A. therefore B. however C. consequently D. unfortunately Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions 6 to 7. Question 6: Joyce is loved by all her friends because she is very congenial. A. courageous B. insensitive C. unpleasant D. wealthy Question 7: China has become the third country in the world which can independently carry out the manned space activities. A. put in B. put off C. put on D. put up Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 8 to 9. Question 8: A. possible B. rapidly C. initiate D. medical Question 9: A. emergency B. conventional C. vulnerable D. catastrophe Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 10 to 12. Question 10: "It can't be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom." said our manager. A. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the document, not Mike. B. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of Mike. C. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document: Mike or Tom. D. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike. Question 11: I think I should have cooked more food. There's nothing left now. A. I did not cook much food and I think it was a mistake. B. I regrets cooking too much food now. C. I did not cook much food and I think it is ok now. D. I should not have cooked so much food. Question 12: People think the Samba is the most popular dance in Brazil. A. It is thought that the Samba was the most popular dance in Brazil. B. In Brazil, the Samba is thought to be one of the most popular dances. C. The Samba is thought to be the most popular dance in Brazil.                                                Trang 1/5 ­ Mã đề thi 324
  2. D. It is thought that the Samba is among the most popular dances in Brazil. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 13 to 20. The technology of the North American colonies did not differ strikingly from that of Europe, but in one respect, the colonists enjoyed a great advantage. Especially by comparison with Britain, Americans had a wonderfully plentiful supply of wood. The first colonists did not, as many people imagine, find an entire continent covered by a climax forest. Even along the Atlantic seaboard, the forest was broken at many points. Nevertheless, all sorts of fine trees abounded, and through the early colonial period, those who pushed westward encountered new forests. By the end of the colonial era, the price of wood had risen slightly in eastern cities, but wood was still extremely abundant. The availability of wood brought advantages that have seldom been appreciated. Wood was a foundation of the economy. Houses and all manner of buildings were made of wood to a degree unknown in Britain. Secondly, wood was used as fuel for heating and cooking. Thirdly, it was used as the source of important industrial compounds, such as potash, an industrial alkali; charcoal, a component of gunpowder; and tannic acid, used for tanning leather. The supply of wood conferred advantages but had some negative aspects as well. Iron at that time was produced by heating iron ore with charcoal. Because Britain was so stripped of trees, she was unable to exploit her rich iron mines. But the American colonies had both iron ore and wood; iron production was encouraged and became successful. However, when Britain developed coke smelting, the Colonies did not follow suit because they had plenty of wood and besides, charcoal iron was stronger than coke iron. Coke smelting led to technologic innovations and was linked to the emergence of the Industrial Revolution. In the early nineteenth century, the former colonies lagged behind Britain in industrial development because their supply of wood led them to cling to charcoal iron. Question 13: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The effects of an abundance of wood on the colonies B. The difference between charcoal iron and coke iron C. The advantages of using wood in the colonies D. The roots of the Industrial Revolution Question 14: The word strikingly in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to______. A. dramatically B. realistically C. immediately D. completely Question 15: Which of the following is a common assumption about the forests of North America during the colonial period? A. They had little or no economic value. B. They contained only a few types of trees. C. They existed only along the Atlantic seaboard. D. They covered the entire continent. Question 16: According to the passage, by the end of the colonial period, the price of wood in eastern cities_______. A. was much higher than it was in Britain. B. rose quickly because wood was becoming so scarce. C. was slightly higher than in previous years. D. decreased rapidly because of lower demand for wood. Question 17: What can be inferred about houses in Britain during the period written about in the passage? A. They were generally built with imported materials. B. They were usually built from materials other than wood. C. They were more expensive than American houses. D. They were typically smaller than homes in North America. Question 18: Why does the author mention gunpowder in paragraph 3? A. To suggest that wood was not the only important product of the colonies B. To give an example of a product made with wood compounds C. To remind readers that the colonial era ended in warfare D. To illustrate the negative aspects of some industrial processes Question 19: According to the passage, why was the use of coke smelting advantageous? A. It led to advances in technology. B. It was less expensive than wood smelting. C. It produced a stronger type of iron than wood smelting. D. It stimulated the demand for wood. Question 20: The phrase “follow suit” in paragraph 4 means______. A. do the same thing B. make an attempt C. take a risk D. have the opportunity Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 21 to 27.                                                Trang 2/5 ­ Mã đề thi 324
  3. Unlike earlier campaigns, the 1960 presidential campaign featured the politically innovative and highly influential series of televised debates in the contest between the Republicans and the Democrats. Senator John Kennedy established an early lead among the Democratic hopefuls and was nominated on the first ballot at the Los Angeles convention to be the representative of the Democratic party in the presidential elections. Richard Nixon, then serving as vice president of the United States under Eisenhower, received the nomination of the Republican party. Both Nixon and Kennedy campaigned vigorously throughout the country and then took the unprecedented step of appearing in face-to-face debates on television. Political experts contend that the debates were a pivotal force in the elections. In front of a viewer ship of more than 100 million citizens, Kennedy masterfully overcome Nixon's advantage as the better-known and more experienced candidate and reversed the public perception of him as too inexperienced and immature for the presidency. Question 21: Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage? A. Kennedy defeated Nixon in the 1960 presidential election. B. Television debates have long been a part of campaigning. C. Kennedy was the leading Democratic candidate in the 1960 presidential election. D. Television debates were instrumental in the outcome of the 1960 presidential election. Question 22: The passage implies that Kennedy_______. A. was a long shot to receive the Democratic presidential nomination B. was not a front runner in the race for the Democratic presidential nomination C. came from behind to win the Democratic presidential nomination D. won the Democratic presidential nomination fairly easily Question 23: The passage states that the television debates between presidential candidates in 1960 _______. A. were the final televised debates B. were the first presidential campaign debates to be televised C. did not influence the selection of the president D. were fairly usual in the history of presidential campaigns Question 24: Which of the following is NOT mentioned about Richard Nixon? A. He campaigned strongly all over the country. B. He was serving as vice president. C. He was nominated on the first ballot. D. He was the Republican party's candidate for president. Question 25: The pronoun "him" in the last line of the passage refers to ______. A. Eisenhower B. The better-known and more experienced candidate C. Richard Nixon D. John Kennedy Question 26: The underlined word "vigorously" in the passage could be best replaced by ______. A. weakly B. strongly C. commonly D. firstly Question 27: The word "pivotal" in the passage is closest in meaning to ______. A. uncontrolled B. varied C. crucial D. mature Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following exchanges from 28 to 29. Question 28: ~ Peter: “Do you mind if I use your bike?” ~ Susan: “_______ ” A. Not at all. Help yourself. B. Sorry. I have no idea. C. Certainly, it’s true. D. You can say that again. Question 29: "How about going across the street for a cup of coffee?" "______" A. I can't. I'm meeting Jennifer at the library at 5.00. B. Jennifer is really nice. C. Sure. Jennifer is getting on really well. D. I should. Coffee is good. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the pronunciation of the underlined part in each of the following questions from 30 to 31. Question 30: A. gold B. organize C. game D. region Question 31: A. post B. score C. swimming D. decision Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 32 to 34. Question 32: The first nation park in the world, calling Yellowstone Park, was established in 1872. A B C D Question 33: Mantovani conducted the orchestra gracefully and with style to the delight of his A B C appreciative audience.                                                Trang 3/5 ­ Mã đề thi 324
  4. D Question 34: She passed the board exam, that made her parents proud. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions from 35 to 36. Question 35: My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953. It was completely destroyed by the forest fire. A. The forest fire destroyed my grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953. B. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953, so it was completely destroyed by the forest fire. C. My grandparents’ lake house, built in 1953, was completely destroyed by the forest fire. D. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953 and completely destroyed by the forest fire. Question 36: The holiday was so expensive. We could only afford five days. A. So expensive was a five-day holiday that we could hardly afford it B. It was such an expensive holiday that we could only afford five days. C. The holiday was dirt cheap, so we could afford more than five days. D. A five-day holiday wasn’t cheap, so we couldn’t afford it. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 37 to 48. Question 37: 2007 was the 40th anniversary of the _______ of ASEAN. A. founder B. founding C. found D. foundation Question 38: George is married ______ two children. A. of B. to C. with D. on Question 39: Tom said he took ______ golf so that he could meet more interesting people. A. over B. on C. back D. up Question 40: He spent a year in India and loves spicy food. _______ the food is, _______ he likes it. A. The more and more hot / the more B. The hotter / the more and more C. The hotter / the more D. The hottest / the most Question 41: You've just ________yourself. You said the opposite a few minutes ago. A. disagreed B. disputed C. objected D. contradicted Question 42: _______, Peter came to see me. A. While I was having dinner B. When I having dinner C. When having dinner D. While having dinner Question 43: Could you please tell me _________? A. how far is it to the nearest hotel B. how far it is to the nearest hotel C. it is how far to the nearest hotel D. how far to the nearest hotel is it Question 44: It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver ______ in the crash. A. are injured B. was injured C. is injured D. have been injured Question 45: This is not the right _______ to ask for my help; I am far too busy even to listen. A. moment B. situation C. opportunity D. circumstance Question 46: She jumped and shouted to draw _______ to herself. A. notion B. intention C. attention D. attraction Question 47: I didn’t have time for ______ breakfast this morning because I was in ______ hurry. A. Ø – a B. a – the C. Ø – Ø D. the – a nd Question 48: In the 22 SEA Games in 2003, the country _______ the competition with 340 medals, including 156 golds, 91 silvers and 93 bronzes. A. defended B. cost C. topped D. ranked Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 49 to 50. Question 49: In America, when a woman and a man are introduced, shaking hands is up to a woman. A. relies on B. congratulates on C. waits on D. depends on Question 50: The world is becoming a smaller place. Travel and transportation are becoming quicker and easier; communications can be instantaneous to any part of the world. A. done immediately B. simultaneous C. widely supported D. easily connected -----------------------------------------------                                                Trang 4/5 ­ Mã đề thi 324
  5. ----------- THE END ----------                                                Trang 5/5 ­ Mã đề thi 324
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