intTypePromotion=1
zunia.vn Tuyển sinh 2024 dành cho Gen-Z zunia.vn zunia.vn
ADSENSE

Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2024-2025 - Trường THPT Đỗ Đăng Tuyển, Quảng Nam

Chia sẻ: _ _ | Ngày: | Loại File: DOCX | Số trang:4

2
lượt xem
1
download
 
  Download Vui lòng tải xuống để xem tài liệu đầy đủ

Tham khảo “Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2024-2025 - Trường THPT Đỗ Đăng Tuyển, Quảng Nam" để bổ sung kiến thức, nâng cao tư duy và rèn luyện kỹ năng giải đề chuẩn bị thật tốt cho kì thi học kì sắp tới các em nhé! Chúc các em ôn tập kiểm tra đạt kết quả cao!

Chủ đề:
Lưu

Nội dung Text: Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm 2024-2025 - Trường THPT Đỗ Đăng Tuyển, Quảng Nam

  1. SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG NAM ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ I- NĂM HỌC 2024- TRƯỜNG THPT ĐỖ ĐĂNG TUYỂN 2025 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH- LỚP 10 -------------------- Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Đề có 03 trang) (không kể thời gian phát đề) Số báo Họ và tên: .......................................................... Lớp 10/ ….. danh: ................... .. I. LISTENING (2.0 pts): PART 1: You will hear Tessa talking to her classmate, Robert, about a school project. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, or C. You will hear the conversation twice. Question 1. The project is about music in ______. A. Asia B. Africa C. Europe Question 2. Robert has got some information from ______. A. a newspaper B. a radio programme C. a TV programme Question 3. When will the friends work together on the project? A. tomorrow B. tonight C. this afternoon Question 4. Which musical instrument will they choose to write about? A. guitar B. pianos C. drums PART 2: Listen to Kate talking about the lifestyles of her father and her uncle. Decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Statements True (T) False (F) Question 5. Kate's father usually gets home late from work. Question 6. Kate’s father plays sports and exercises five times a week. Question 7. Kate’s uncle never watches TV or surfs the Internet. Question 8. Kate’s uncle spends his free time going to the sports centre. II. LANGUAGE (3.0 pts): Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 9. Kate needed some new clothing, ______ she went shopping yesterday. A. so B. nor C. or D. but Question 10. A new modern hotel ______ in the centre of our city. A. builds B. will build C. is going to build D. is going to be built Question 11. My sister usually ______ out the rubbish twice a week. A. puts B. makes C. reads D. writes Question 12. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is placed differently from the others. A. perform B. attract C. decide D. music Question 13. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is placed differently from the others. A. singer B. enjoy C. parent D. children Question 14. Luara is such a kind girl. She often ______ the kids of the neighbourhood. A. is helping B. helped C. will help D. helps Question 15. Our simple activities can help reduce the negative impact ______ the environment. A. on B. in C. of D. with Question 16. He heard some people ______ in the next room last Sunday. A. to talk B. talked C. talk D. were talking Trang 1- Mã đề 104
  2. Question 17. You should buy ______ food at this supermarket, it’s good for your health. A. harmful B. sustainable C. organic D. fast Question 18. Choose the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in this sentence. More and more people cut down on electricity usage to save money. A. increase B. reduce C. recycle D. raise Question 19. Did they agree ______ you with that difficult task? A. to help B. help C. helping D. helped Question 20. My father is a breadwinner and my mother is ______ for domestic duties. A. responsibility B. responsible C. responsibly D. irresponsible III. READING (2.5 pts): PART 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 21 to 25. Plastic is a material we use every day. The first plastics were made more than 100 years ago from parts of plants. Plastics are now made from oil, coal and natural gas. We are using up these things so fast that the Earth’s supplies may run out. Because of this, scientists are investigating new ideas for making plastics from plants such as sweet potato, bamboo and flax. Things made from plastic can be useful for people but bad for the planet. Some plastics can last for a long time without wearing out, and can be difficult to get rid of when they are not needed. They can remain in rubbish dumps called landfill sites for hundreds of years. Landfills can be smelly, ugly, and harmful to our planet. Recycling is a good way to get rid of unwanted plastics. Recycled waste materials can be used again to make new products. This can be difficult as different types of plastic need to be recycled in different ways. Some kinds of plastics can be melted down and used to make new things such as bags and bottles. Others can be made into fibres (strands of material) for clothing. Another way to protect the environment is to use canvas bags for shopping rather than plastic ones. A lot of plastic objects can also be reused. Plastic bottles can be refilled many times, rather than throwing them away once they are empty. (Adapted from https://www.esolcourses.com) Question 21. According to the passage, plastics are now made from ______. A. parts of plants B. oil, coal and natural gas C. oil, bamboo and flax D. sweet potato, bamboo and natural gas Question 22. The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to ______. A. People B. Things C. Rubbish dumps D. Plastics Question 23. The phrase “get rid of” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______. A. eliminate B. create C. make D. estimate Question 24. Recycling is a good way to get rid of _______. A. new products B. canvas bags C. unwanted plastics D. refilled bottles Question 25. What is the passage mainly about? A. The history of plastic and its usefulness. B. Materials that plastic is made of. C. The ways to reduce the harm of plastics on the environment. D. Plastic: effects and solutions to the problem. PART 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. The Voice is an international reality television singing competition franchise. It is based (26) _______ the concept The Voice of Holland, which was originally created by Dutch television producer John de Mol. Many countries have adapted the format and began airing their own (27) ______ since 2011. The show’s format features five stages of competition: producers’ auditions, blind auditions, battle rounds, knockouts and live performance shows. In the original Dutch version, along with solo contestants, groups with more than two members are actually eligible to join. In some versions, all contestants (28) ______each week and only the public’s vote determines which contestants advance in the competition. This means that any contestant can be eliminated, (29) ______ no coach is guaranteed a spot in the finals. Trang 2- Mã đề 104
  3. Together with this (30) ______ method, there is an Instant Save in certain versions in which public must vote again to save one contestant who is in danger of elimination. (Adapted from https://wiki2.org/en/The_Voice) Question 26. A. in B. on C. at D. by Question 27. A. votes B. participants C. versions D. singers Question 28. A. have performed B. will perform C. performed D. perform Question 29. A. and B. or C. but D. yet Question 30. A. eliminate B. elimination C. eliminated D. eliminating IV.WRITING (2.5pts): PART 1: (1.5 pts) Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. Question 1: My mother made me stay at home in the evening.  My mother forced …….…………………….…………………………………………………….. Question 2: The local people will donate some used items to the club.  Some used items…….………………………………………………………………….………….. Combine the following pair of sentences into one by using the word given in brackets. Question 3: The students didn’t revise for their final exams. They got bad marks. (so) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………. PART 2: (1.0 pt) Write a paragraph (80- 100 words) about your family routines. Use the following cues for your writing. - Having breakfast together. - Doing household chores at weekends. - Visiting grandparents twice a month. -THE END- Trang 3- Mã đề 104
  4. Trang 4- Mã đề 104
ADSENSE

CÓ THỂ BẠN MUỐN DOWNLOAD

 

Đồng bộ tài khoản
2=>2