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Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Trần Hưng Đạo, Kon Tum

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  1. ỦY BAN NHÂN DÂN TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ I . NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 TRƯỜNG TH&THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO Môn: Tiếng Anh Lớp: 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút I . MỤC TIÊU 1. Kiến thức: The language and skills from unit Hello to unit 2d. - vocabulary and phrases about family, homes and places, daily routines. - the Present Simple tense - have got/has got - there is/ there are - this/that/these/ those - prepositions of place - singular/ plural nouns - a/an/some/any 2. Năng lực: * General competences: - Improve students’ analytical and critical thinking skills. - Communicative and cooperative ability - Problem solving and creative ability * Specific competences: - Do the test well through skills. - Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D; decide Right/ Wrong/DS - Listen and choose the correct answers. - Make complete sentences from the prompts. - Write a short description (40-50 words) about their bedroom. 3. Phẩm chất: Self- study, cooperate with other Ss and the teacher; evaluate, assess and self-access; work hard II. HÌNH THỨC Phần trắc nghiệm (70%) và Phần tự luận (30%) III. MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ I- NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 MÔN TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 6
  2. Mức độ nhận thức Tổng TT Kĩ năng Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Tỉ lệ Thời Tỉ lệ Thời Tỉ lệ Thời Thời Thời (%)/câu (%)/câu (%)/câu Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ gian gian gian gian gian (%)/câu (%)/ câu (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) 12,5 5 12,5 5 25 1 LISTENING 10 5 câu 5 câu 10 câu 12,5 5 7,5 5 5 5 25 15 2 LANGUAGE 5 câu 3 câu 2 câu 10 câu 10 6 10 10 5 4 25 20 3 READING 4 câu 4 câu 2 câu 10 câu 5 4 10 6 A 25 15 para 5 4 WRITING 2 câu 4 câu 6 câu + 1 para 100% 40% 30% 20 % 10% Tổng 20 20 15 5 36 câu + 60 16 câu 12 câu 8 câu 1 para 1 para Tỉ lệ % 40.00 30 20 10 100 Tỉ lệ chung (%) 70.00 30 100 Số câu: Nhận biết 16 Thông hiểu 12 Vận dụng 8 Vận dụng cao: 1 paragraph
  3. BẢNG MÔ TẢ KĨ THUẬT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ I MÔN TIẾNG ANH 6 NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức Tổng Số Mức độ kiến thức, kĩ năng Nhận Thông Vận Vận CH TT Kĩ năng Đơn vị kiến thức/kỹ năng biết hiểu dụng dụng cao cần kiểm tra, đánh giá T TN TL TN TL TN TN TL TN TL L I. LISTENING 1. Nghe một đoạn độc thoại trong 1.5 phút để chọn đáp án đúng cho các câu hỏi có liên Nhận biết: 2 2 quan đến các chủ đề đã học: - Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết - Countries/ Nationalities Thông hiểu: - Numbers - Hiểu nội dung chính của 3 3 - Sports đoạn độc thoại/ hội thoại để - Places tìm câu trả lời đúng. Vận dụng: - Nắm được ý chính của bài nghe để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. - Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để tìm câu trả lời đúng. Nhận biết: 3 3 - Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết Thông hiểu: - Hiểu nội dung chính của 2. Nghe một đoạn đối thoại khoảng 1.5 phút 2 2 đoạn độc thoại/ hội thoại để để chọn đáp án Đúng/Sai cho các câu có tìm câu trả lời đúng. liên quan đến các chủ đề đã học: Vận dụng: - House/ rooms/ furniture… - Nắm được ý chính của bài nghe để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. - Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để tìm câu trả lời đúng.
  4. II. LANGUAGE Pronunciation Nhận biết: Nhận biết sự khác nhau nguyên âm: / a/ Nguyên âm: / a / 1 1 Phụ âm thông qua các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học. Trọng âm của các giới từ 2 âm tiết Thông hiểu: - Phân biệt được các trọng âm 1 1 trong phần Pronunciation. Vận dụng: - Hiểu và vận dụng vào bài nghe. Vocabulary Nhận biết: Từ vựng đã học theo chủ đề. -Nhận ra, nhớ lại, liệt kê được - Vocabulary and phrases about các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã 4 4 family, homes and places, daily học. routines. Thông hiểu: - Hiểu và phân biệt được các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học. 1 1 - Nắm được các mối liên kết và kết hợp của từ trong bối cảnh và ngữ cảnh tương ứng. Vận dụng: - Hiểu và vận dụng được từ vựng đã học trong văn cảnh (danh từ, động từ, tính từ và trạng từ…) Grammar Nhận biết: Các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học. - Nhận ra được các kiến thức 2 2 - the Present Simple tense ngữ pháp đã học. Thông hiểu: - have got/has got - Hiểu và phân biệt các chủ 1 1 - there is/ there are điểm ngữ pháp đã học. - this/that/these/ those Vận dụng: - prepositions of place - Hiểu và vận dụng các kiến 2 2 ngữ pháp đã học vào bài
  5. - singular/ plural nouns nghe, đọc, viết. - a/an/some/any III. READING Nhận biết: - Thông tin chi tiết. 2 2 1. Reading comprehension Thông hiểu: Hiểu được nội dung chính và nội dung chi 2 2 - Hiểu ý chính của bài đọc. tiết đoạn văn bản có độ dài khoảng 100-120 từ, xoay quanh các chủ điểm có trong Vận dụng: chương trình - Đoán nghĩa của từ trong văn (tiêu đề, từ quy chiếu, từ đồng nghĩa,1 cảnh. thông tin chi tiết có trong bài) - Hiểu, phân tích, tổng hợp ý 1 1 chính của bài để chọn câu trả lời phù hợp. 2. Cloze test Nhận biết: Hiểu được bài đọc có độ dài khoảng 80-100 - Nhận ra được các thành tố từ về các chủ điểm đã học. ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt 2 2 - Everyday activities văn bản. - The time Thông hiểu: - Phân biệt được các đặc trưng, đặc điểm các thành tố 2 2 ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản. Vận dụng: - Sử dụng các kiến thức ngôn ngữ và kỹ năng trong các tình 1 1 huống mới. IV. WRITING Sentence transformation Vận dụng: - There is/are - Hiểu câu gốc và sử dụng 4 4 - Have got/has got các từ gợi ý để viết lại câu - Walk = go on foot sao cho nghĩa không thay
  6. đổi. Nhận biết: Sentence building - Sử dụng các từ đã để sắp 2 2 Viết lại câu dùng từ gợi ý hoặc từ cho trước xếp thành câu hoàn chỉnh. - Present simple Vận dụng: - Like + v-ing Sử dụng các từ, cụm từ đã - Prepositions cho để viết thành câu hoàn - Plural nouns chỉnh Vận dụng cao: 1 1 Write a description (40-50 words) about - Dùng câu hỏi gợi ý để viết par par your bedroom đoạn miêu tả về phòng ngủ. a a 8+ 1 28 par 14 a Tổng 2 12 2 6 (70 %) (30 %)
  7. ỦY BAN NHÂN DÂN TP KON TUM ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ I TRƯỜNG TH&THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 Môn: Tiếng Anh, Lớp: 6 Mã đề: 01 Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề) ( Đề có: 36 câu và 1 đoạn văn, 03 trang) Họ và tên học sinh:..................................................................... Lớp: ............... ĐIỂM LỜI PHÊ CỦA THẦY, CÔ GIÁO. I. LISTENING: ( 2.5 points ) Part 1. Listen to Nick talking about his family. Choose the best options (A, B, C or D). ( 1,25 pts) 1. Nick was born in _________. A. Russia B. Australia C. Egypt D. the USA 2. His mother is ________years old. A. fifty B. fifty-six C. sixty D. forty 3. His father is____________. A. Russian B. Brazilian C. American D. Australian. 4. Nick's sister often plays__________ at the weekend. A. football B. tennis C. basketball D. badminton 5. His family usually walks in the_____________. A. garden B. market C. park D. supermarket Part 2. Listen to a conversation between Ben and Alex. Write R (right) or W (wrong). ( 1,25 pts) 1. Ben's new house is small. ________ 2. There are two bathrooms in his house. ________ 3. Ben's favourite room is his bedroom. ________ 4. There are two armchairs in the living room. ________ 5. Ben invites Alex to have dinner at his house. ____________ II. LANGUAGE: (2.5 points) Part 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences. (2.0 pts) 1. There is a park______________my house. It’s across the road. A. between B. opposite C. on D. next to 2. My __________ is on the sixth floor of the building. A. detached house B. cottage C. flat D. bungalow 3. There are __________books on the bookcase. A. some B. a C. an D. any 4. The girl’s school________in the surburbs. A. am B. are C. be D. is 5. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. A. wardrobe B. carpet C. garage D. market 6. Choose the word that has a different stressed syllable from the rest. A. behind B. below C. above D. under ____________________________________________________________________________________ Mã đề 01 – Tiếng Anh 6 Trang 1
  8. 7. We can meet _______the afternoon. A. in B. on C. at D. to 8. Choose the option that has the OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. My uncle is tall and thin. A. young B. old C. fat D. short Part 2. Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (0.5 pts) 1. There (not be)……………….any chairs in the kitchen. 2. My sister (not like)……………….Music. III. READING: (2.5 points) Part 1. Read the passage and decide whether the following statements are R (Right), W (Wrong) or DS (Doesn’t say) (1.25 pts) Sarah is a sixth-grade student. Every morning, she gets up at 6:30 a.m. She brushes her teeth, washes her face, and gets dressed for school. At 7:00 a.m., Sarah has breakfast with her family. After breakfast, she packs her school bag and leaves the house at 7:30 a.m. She takes the bus to school, and it takes her 15 minutes to get there. School starts at 8:00 a.m., and Sarah’s favorite subjects are English and Science. During the lunch break at 12:00 p.m., she eats with her friends in the school canteen. After school ends at 3:30 p.m., Sarah goes home. She usually does her homework from 4:00 p.m. to 5:30 p.m. After finishing her homework, she helps her mother prepare dinner. In the evening, Sarah often reads books or watches TV. At 9:00 p.m., she goes to bed to get ready for the next day. 1. Sarah gets up at seven o’clock every morning. ___________ 2. She usually has breakfast with her family. ___________ 3. Sarah goes to school by bike. ___________ 4. Her favorite subjects are English and Math. ___________ 5. Sarah has a lot of homework. ___________ Part 2. Read the passage, choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.25 pts) Tuyết is from Hanoi, Vietnam. It is the (1) _______city of Vietnam. She's got a small family. There are four people in her family: her parents, her older sister and her. Tuyết and her sister (2)____________ a rabbit pet. The rabbit is three years old, and it's very friendly. Tuyết is good (3)_________ martial arts. She's great. Her e-friend is Drake. He's from Cape Town. It is one of the three capital (4)__________ in South Africa. Drake is eleven years old. He is polite and kind. He likes sports, (5)_________ he can play football well. Drake is in the school football team. 1. A capital B. town C. country D. place 2. A has got B. hasn't got C. have got D. haven’t got 3. A at B. in C. by D. on 4. A city B. cities C. country D. countries 5. A for B. or C. but D. and IV. WRITING: (2.5 points) Part 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. (0,5 pts) 1. My living room has got a sofa. → There…….………………………………………………………………..…………… ____________________________________________________________________________________ Mã đề 01 – Tiếng Anh 6 Trang 2
  9. 2. Mary walks to school every day. → Mary goes……………………………….………………..……………………………. Part 2. Use the cues given to make complete sentences. (1.0 pt) 1. Canal boats/ long/ thin. ……………………………………..……………………………………..………………… 2. The bedside cabinet/ next/ the bed. ……………………………………..…………………………………..…………………… 3. these/ your/ scraf ? ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 4. My sister/ like/ go to the libray/ read science books. ……………………………………………………………………………………………… Part 3. ( 1.0 pt ) Write a short description of your bedroom ( about 40-50 words). Use the following questions to help you: - Is your bedroom big or small? - What colour are the walls? - What is there in your bedroom? ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ---------THE END------------ ____________________________________________________________________________________ Mã đề 01 – Tiếng Anh 6 Trang 3
  10. ỦY BAN NHÂN DÂN TP KON TUM ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ I TRƯỜNG TH&THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 Môn: Tiếng Anh, Lớp: 6 Mã đề: 02 Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề) ( Đề có: 36 câu và 1 đoạn văn, 03 trang) Họ và tên học sinh:..................................................................... Lớp: ............... ĐIỂM LỜI PHÊ CỦA THẦY, CÔ GIÁO. I. LISTENING: ( 2.5 points ) Part 1. Listen to Nick talking about his family. Choose the best options (A, B, C or D). ( 1,25 pts) 1. Nick was born in _________. A. Russia B. The USA C. Egypt D. Australia 2. His mother is ________years old. A. sixty B. fifty-six C. fifty D. forty 3. His father is____________. A. Australian B. Brazilian C. American D. Russian 4. Nick's sister often plays__________ at the weekend. A. tennis B. football C. basketball D. badminton 5. His family usually walks in the_____________. A. garden B. market C. park D. supermarket Part 2. Listen to a conversation between Ben and Alex. Write R (right) or W (wrong). ( 1,25 pts) 1. Ben's new house is small. ________ 2. There are two bathrooms in his house. ________ 3. Ben's favourite room is his bedroom. ________ 4. There are two armchairs in the living room. ________ 5. Ben invites Alex to have dinner at his house. ________ II. LANGUAGE: (2.5 points) Part 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences. (2.0 pts) 1. There are __________books on the bookcase. A. some B. a C. an D. any 2. The girl’s school________in the surburbs. A. am B. are C. be D. is 3. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. A. wardrobe B. carpet C. garage D. market 4. We can meet _______the afternoon. A. in B. on C. at D. to 5. Choose the option that has the OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. My uncle is tall and thin. A. young B. old C. fat D. short ____________________________________________________________________________________ Mã đề 02 – Tiếng Anh 6 Trang
  11. 6. Choose the word that has a different stressed syllable from the rest. A. behind B. below C. above D. under 7. There is a park______________my house. It’s across the road. A. between B. opposite C. on D. next to 8. My __________ is on the sixth floor of the building. A. detached house B. cottage C. flat D. bungalow Part 2. Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (0.5 pts) 1. There (not be)……………….any chairs in the kitchen. 2. My sister (not like)……………….Music. III. READING: (2.5 points) Part 1. Read the passage and decide whether the following statements are R (Right), W (Wrong) or DS (Doesn’t say) (1.25 pts) Sarah is a sixth-grade student. Every morning, she gets up at 6:30 a.m. She brushes her teeth, washes her face, and gets dressed for school. At 7:00 a.m., Sarah has breakfast with her family. After breakfast, she packs her school bag and leaves the house at 7:30 a.m. She takes the bus to school, and it takes her 15 minutes to get there. School starts at 8:00 a.m., and Sarah’s favorite subjects are English and Science. During the lunch break at 12:00 p.m., she eats with her friends in the school canteen. After school ends at 3:30 p.m., Sarah goes home. She usually does her homework from 4:00 p.m. to 5:30 p.m. After finishing her homework, she helps her mother prepare dinner. In the evening, Sarah often reads books or watches TV. At 9:00 p.m., she goes to bed to get ready for the next day. 1. Sarah gets up at seven o’clock every morning. ___________ 2. She usually has breakfast with her family. ___________ 3. Sarah goes to school by bike. ___________ 4. Her favorite subjects are English and Math. ___________ 5. Sarah has a lot of homework. ___________ Part 2. Read the passage, choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.25 pts) Tuyết is from Hanoi, Vietnam. It is the (1) _______city of Vietnam. She's got a small family. There are four people in her family: her parents, her older sister and her. Tuyết and her sister (2)____________ a rabbit pet. The rabbit is three years old, and it's very friendly. Tuyết is good (3)_________ martial arts. She's great. Her e-friend is Drake. He's from Cape Town. It is one of the three capital (4)__________ in South Africa. Drake is eleven years old. He is polite and kind. He likes sports, (5)_________ he can play football well. Drake is in the school football team. 1. A town B. capital C. country D. place 2. A has got B. hasn't got C. haven’t got D. have got 3. A by B. in C. at D. on 4. A cities B. city C. country D. countries 5. A for B. or C. but D. and IV. WRITING: (2.5 points) Part 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. (0,5 pts) 1. My living room has got a sofa. → There…….………………………………………………………………..…………… ____________________________________________________________________________________ Mã đề 02 – Tiếng Anh 6 Trang
  12. 2. Mary walks to school every day. → Mary goes……………………………….………………..……………………………. Part 2. Use the cues given to make complete sentences. (1.0 pt) 1. Canal boats/ long/ thin. ……………………………………..……………………………………..………………… 2. The bedside cabinet/ next/ the bed. ……………………………………..…………………………………..…………………… 3. these/ your/ scraf ? ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 4. My sister/ like/ go to the libray/ read science books. ……………………………………………………………………………………………… Part 3. ( 1.0 pt ) Write a short description of your bedroom ( about 40-50 words). Use the following questions to help you: - Is your bedroom big or small? - What colour are the walls? - What is there in your bedroom? ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ---------THE END------------ ____________________________________________________________________________________ Mã đề 02 – Tiếng Anh 6 Trang
  13. ỦY BAN NHÂN DÂN TP KON TUM ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ I TRƯỜNG TH&THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 Môn: Tiếng Anh, Lớp: 6 Mã đề: 03 Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề) ( Đề có: 36 câu và 1 đoạn văn, 03 trang) Họ và tên học sinh:..................................................................... Lớp: ............... ĐIỂM LỜI PHÊ CỦA THẦY, CÔ GIÁO. I. LISTENING: ( 2.5 points ) Part 1. Listen to Nick talking about his family. Choose the best options (A, B, C or D). ( 1,25 pts) 1. Nick was born in _________. A. Russia B. Egypt C. The USA D. Australia 2. His mother is ________years old. A. sixty B. fifty-six C. forty D. fifty 3. His father is____________. A. Russian B. Brazilian C. American D. Australian 4. Nick's sister often plays__________ at the weekend. A. badminton B. football C. basketball D. tennis 5. His family usually walks in the_____________. A. garden B. park C. market D. supermarket Part 2. Listen to a conversation between Ben and Alex. Write R (right) or W (wrong). ( 1,25 pts) 1. Ben's new house is small. ________ 2. There are two bathrooms in his house. ________ 3. Ben's favourite room is his bedroom. ________ 4. There are two armchairs in the living room. ________ 5. Ben invites Alex to have dinner at his house. ________ II. LANGUAGE: (2.5 points) Part 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences. (2.0 pts) 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. A. wardrobe B. carpet C. garage D. market 2. We can meet _______the afternoon. A. in B. on C. at D. to 3. Choose the option that has the OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. My uncle is tall and thin. A. young B. old C. fat D. short 4. Choose the word that has a different stressed syllable from the rest. A. behind B. below C. above D. under 5. There is a park______________my house. It’s across the road. A. between B. opposite C. on D. next to ____________________________________________________________________________________ Mã đề 03 – Tiếng Anh 6 Trang
  14. 6. My __________ is on the sixth floor of the building. A. detached house B. cottage C. flat D. bungalow 7. There are __________books on the bookcase. A. some B. a C. an D. any 8. The girl’s school________in the surburbs. A. am B. are C. be D. is Part 2. Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (0.5 pts) 1. There (not be)……………….any chairs in the kitchen. 2. My sister (not like)……………….Music. III. READING: (2.5 points) Part 1. Read the passage and decide whether the following statements are R (Right), W (Wrong) or DS (Doesn’t say) (1.25 pts) Sarah is a sixth-grade student. Every morning, she gets up at 6:30 a.m. She brushes her teeth, washes her face, and gets dressed for school. At 7:00 a.m., Sarah has breakfast with her family. After breakfast, she packs her school bag and leaves the house at 7:30 a.m. She takes the bus to school, and it takes her 15 minutes to get there. School starts at 8:00 a.m., and Sarah’s favorite subjects are English and Science. During the lunch break at 12:00 p.m., she eats with her friends in the school canteen. After school ends at 3:30 p.m., Sarah goes home. She usually does her homework from 4:00 p.m. to 5:30 p.m. After finishing her homework, she helps her mother prepare dinner. In the evening, Sarah often reads books or watches TV. At 9:00 p.m., she goes to bed to get ready for the next day. 1. Sarah gets up at seven o’clock every morning. ___________ 2. She usually has breakfast with her family. ___________ 3. Sarah goes to school by bike. ___________ 4. Her favorite subjects are English and Math. ___________ 5. Sarah has a lot of homework. ___________ Part 2. Read the passage, choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.25 pts) Tuyết is from Hanoi, Vietnam. It is the (1) _______city of Vietnam. She's got a small family. There are four people in her family: her parents, her older sister and her. Tuyết and her sister (2)____________ a rabbit pet. The rabbit is three years old, and it's very friendly. Tuyết is good (3)_________ martial arts. She's great. Her e-friend is Drake. He's from Cape Town. It is one of the three capital (4)__________ in South Africa. Drake is eleven years old. He is polite and kind. He likes sports, (5)_________ he can play football well. Drake is in the school football team. 1. A town B. place C. country D. capital 2. A have got B. hasn't got C. haven’t got D. has got 3. A by B. at C. in D. on 4. A cities B. city C. country D. countries 5. A for B. or C. and D. because IV. WRITING: (2.5 points) Part 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. (0,5 pts) 1. My living room has got a sofa. ____________________________________________________________________________________ Mã đề 03 – Tiếng Anh 6 Trang
  15. → There…….………………………………………………………………..…………… 2. Mary walks to school every day. → Mary goes……………………………….………………..……………………………. Part 2. Use the cues given to make complete sentences. (1.0 pt) 1. Canal boats/ long/ thin. ……………………………………..……………………………………..………………… 2. The bedside cabinet/ next/ the bed. ……………………………………..…………………………………..…………………… 3. these/ your/ scraf ? ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 4. My sister/ like/ go to the libray/ read science books. ……………………………………………………………………………………………… Part 3. ( 1.0 pt ) Write a short description of your bedroom ( about 40-50 words). Use the following questions to help you: - Is your bedroom big or small? - What colour are the walls? - What is there in your bedroom? ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ---------THE END------------ ____________________________________________________________________________________ Mã đề 03 – Tiếng Anh 6 Trang
  16. ỦY BAN NHÂN DÂN TP KON TUM ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ I TRƯỜNG TH&THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2024-2025 Môn: Tiếng Anh, Lớp: 6 Mã đề: 04 Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề) ( Đề có: 36 câu và 1 đoạn văn, 03 trang) Họ và tên học sinh:..................................................................... Lớp: ............... ĐIỂM LỜI PHÊ CỦA THẦY, CÔ GIÁO. I. LISTENING: ( 2.5 points ) Part 1. Listen to Nick talking about his family. Choose the best options (A, B, C or D). ( 1,25 pts) 1. Nick was born in _________. A. The USA B. Egypt C. Russia D. Australia 2. His mother is ________years old. A. sixty B. fifty C. forty D. fifty-six 3. His father is____________. A. Brazilian B. Russian C. American D. Australian 4. Nick's sister often plays__________ at the weekend. A. badminton B. football C. tennis D. basketball 5. His family usually walks in the_____________. A. park B. garden C. market D. supermarket Part 2. Listen to a conversation between Ben and Alex. Write R (right) or W (wrong). ( 1,25 pts) 1. Ben's new house is small. ________ 2. There are two bathrooms in his house. ________ 3. Ben's favourite room is his bedroom. ________ 4. There are two armchairs in the living room. ________ 5. Ben invites Alex to have dinner at his house. ________ II. LANGUAGE: (2.5 points) Part 1. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences. (2.0 pts) 1. We can meet _______the afternoon. A. in B. on C. at D. to 2. Choose the option that has the OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. My uncle is tall and thin. A. young B. old C. fat D. short 3. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. A. wardrobe B. carpet C. garage D. market 4. Choose the word that has a different stressed syllable from the rest. A. behind B. below C. above D. under 5. There is a park______________my house. It’s across the road. A. between B. opposite C. on D. next to ____________________________________________________________________________________ Mã đề 04 – Tiếng Anh 6 Trang
  17. 6. My __________ is on the sixth floor of the building. A. detached house B. cottage C. flat D. bungalow 7. There are __________books on the bookcase. A. some B. a C. an D. any 8. The girl’s school________in the surburbs. A. am B. are C. be D. is Part 2. Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (0.5 pts) 1. There (not be)……………….any chairs in the kitchen. 2. My sister (not like)……………….Music. III. READING: (2.5 points) Part 1. Read the passage and decide whether the following statements are R (Right), W (Wrong) or DS (Doesn’t say) (1.25 pts) Sarah is a sixth-grade student. Every morning, she gets up at 6:30 a.m. She brushes her teeth, washes her face, and gets dressed for school. At 7:00 a.m., Sarah has breakfast with her family. After breakfast, she packs her school bag and leaves the house at 7:30 a.m. She takes the bus to school, and it takes her 15 minutes to get there. School starts at 8:00 a.m., and Sarah’s favorite subjects are English and Science. During the lunch break at 12:00 p.m., she eats with her friends in the school canteen. After school ends at 3:30 p.m., Sarah goes home. She usually does her homework from 4:00 p.m. to 5:30 p.m. After finishing her homework, she helps her mother prepare dinner. In the evening, Sarah often reads books or watches TV. At 9:00 p.m., she goes to bed to get ready for the next day. 1. Sarah gets up at seven o’clock every morning. ___________ 2. She usually has breakfast with her family. ___________ 3. Sarah goes to school by bike. ___________ 4. Her favorite subjects are English and Math. ___________ 5. Sarah has a lot of homework. ___________ Part 2. Read the passage, choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.25 pts) Tuyết is from Hanoi, Vietnam. It is the (1) _______city of Vietnam. She's got a small family. There are four people in her family: her parents, her older sister and her. Tuyết and her sister (2)____________ a rabbit pet. The rabbit is three years old, and it's very friendly. Tuyết is good (3)_________ martial arts. She's great. Her e-friend is Drake. He's from Cape Town. It is one of the three capital (4)__________ in South Africa. Drake is eleven years old. He is polite and kind. He likes sports, (5)_________ he can play football well. Drake is in the school football team. 1. A town B. place C. capital D. country 2. A hasn’t got B. have got C. haven’t got D. has got 3. A at B. by C. in D. on 4. A cities B. city C. country D. countries 5. A for B. and C. or D. because IV. WRITING: (2.5 points) Part 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. (0,5 pts) 1. My living room has got a sofa. ____________________________________________________________________________________ Mã đề 04 – Tiếng Anh 6 Trang
  18. → There…….………………………………………………………………..…………… 2. Mary walks to school every day. → Mary goes……………………………….………………..……………………………. Part 2. Use the cues given to make complete sentences. (1.0 pt) 1. Canal boats/ long/ thin. ……………………………………..……………………………………..………………… 2. The bedside cabinet/ next/ the bed. ……………………………………..…………………………………..…………………… 3. these/ your/ scraf ? ……………………………………………………………………………………………… 4. My sister/ like/ go to the libray/ read science books. ……………………………………………………………………………………………… Part 3. ( 1.0 pt ) Write a short description of your bedroom ( about 40-50 words). Use the following questions to help you: - Is your bedroom big or small? - What colour are the walls? - What is there in your bedroom? ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ---------THE END------------ ____________________________________________________________________________________ Mã đề 04 – Tiếng Anh 6 Trang
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