Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Hoàng Diệu, Núi Thành
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Nội dung Text: Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Hoàng Diệu, Núi Thành
- MATRIX FOR THE FIRST MID-TERM TEST UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH SUBJECT: ENGLISH 7 SCHOOL YEAR: 2024-2025 TRƯỜNG THCS HOÀNG DIỆU No. Com Low High PARTS Mark Task types Re of App App Ques TL TN TL TN TL TN TL TN Pronun ciation: Indicate the word whose underlin ed part is 2 0.5 0,5 pronoun ced differen tly form the others: /a:/ & /ə/, /t/& /id/ Stress: Indicate the LANG word UAGE which COMP has a ONEN differen T t stress 2 0.5 0,5 (3,0) pattern form the others: the first and second syllable Vocabu lary: 0,75 5 1,25 MCQs: 0,25 0,25 Circle the best option Gramm ar: MCQs: 3 0,75 0, 5 0,25 Circle the best option READI 6 1,5 Read 0,75 0,75 NG the text (2,5) and fill in the blank (choose
- the words from the box) Read the text and choose 4 1,0 the best 1,0 answers for the question s 2 0,5 (Word WRITI formati NG on) (2,5) Give the correct 0,5 form of the verbs in brackets . 2 0,5 (Senten ce building ) Rearran ge these words and 0,5 phrases to make meanin gful sentenc es. 2 0,5 (Error identific ation) Find out the 0,5 mistake s and correct them. 2 0,5 (Senten ce building ) Write complet e sentenc 0,5 es from the words and the phrases given. 2 0,5 (Senten 0,5 ce transfor
- mation) Rewrite the sentenc es so as its meanin g keeps unchang ed, using the given word in brackets 4 1,0 - Listen and circle 1,0 the best LISTE answer NING (2,0) 4 1,0 - Listen and 1,0 write T/ F TOTAL 40 10.0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0) UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH SPECIFICATION FOR THE FIRST MID-TERM TEST TRƯỜNG THCS HOÀNG DIỆU SUBJECT: ENGLISH 7 SCHOOL YEAR: 2024-2025 PARTS CONTENTS No. Mark Task types Re Com High App of Ques TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL -Sen 1- - Listen 4: to the Choose text the best about answer Heart to 4 1.0 1.0 Heart Charity and circle LISTE the best NING answer (2.0) -Sen 5- - Listen 8: T/F to a text stateme about nt Trang’s 4 1.0 1.0 hobby and write T/F LANG Vocabu 1.25 MCQs: 0.75 UAGE lary: Circle 0.25 COMP -Sen 9: 4 the best ONEN 1 verb option
- T phrase (3.0) about healthy living -Sen 10: 1 noun about healthy living -Sen 11: 1 preposi tion about commu nity service -Sen 12: 1 adj about commu nity service -Sen 13: 1 adverb 1 0.25 about healthy living Gram mar 1 points: -Sen 14: 1 0.25 sentenc e about 0.2 5 verb of liking MCQs: Circle -Sen the best 15: 1 option sentenc e about present simple 0.25 0.25 -Sen 0.5 2 16: 1 sentenc e about past simple Pronun Indicate 0.5 ciation: 0,5 the - Sen 2 word 17: whose sounds underli /3:/ ned part & /ə/ is - Sen pronou 18: nced sounds differen /t/& /id/ tly form the others
- Stress: -Sen Indicate 19: the stress word on the which second is syllable 2 0.5 0.5 stressed -Sen differen 20: tly from stress the on the others first syllable -Sen READI 21: 1 NG word (2.5) about a noun -Sen 22: 1 word about a noun (Cloze -Sen test) 23: 1 Read word the text about about 1 an Healthy 1 adjectiv living 1 e 1.5 and fill 1 0.75 0.75 -Sen in the 1 24: 1 blank 1 word (with about a suitable noun words -Sen from 25: 1 the word box) about noun -Sen 26: 1 word about an adjectiv e Sen 27: 1 (Readin Why do g volunte compre er 1 hension usually ) Read do to the text help 1.0 about 1.0 people 1 Sports who and are sick 1 games or old and in their choose homes? the best - Sen answers 28: for the Which questio activiti ns
- es are not availab le for the student s at the clubs? - Sen 29: Why do they use many student s as volunte ers? - Sen 30: Where don’t student s often do volunte er work? WRITI -Sen (Word NG 31: 1 formati (2.5) sentenc on) e about Give present the simple 2 0.5 correct 0.5 -Sen form of 32: 1 the sentenc verbs in e about bracket past s. simple -Sen (Senten 33: -1 ce sentenc buildin e about g) past Rearran simple ge these -Sen words 2 0.5 34: -1 and 0.5 sentenc phrases e about to make present meanin simple gful sentenc es. -Sen 2 0.5 (Error 0.5 35: 1 identifi sentenc cation) e about Find present out the simple mistake -Sen and 36: 1 correct sentenc it in e about standar past d
- simple English in each sentenc e -Sen (Senten 37: 1 ce sentenc buildin e about g) past Write simple complet 0.5 -Sen 2 0.5 e 38: 1 sentenc sentenc es from e about the present words simple given. -Sen (Senten 39: -1 ce sentenc transfor e about mation) simple Rewrite sentenc the e sentenc -Sen es so as 40: 1 its sentenc 2 0.5 meanin 0.5 e about g keeps verb of unchan liking ged, using the word given in bracket s TOTA L (10.0) 40 10.0 4.0 3.0 1.0
- UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ I - NĂM HỌC 2024 – 2025 TRƯỜNG THCS HOÀNG DIỆU Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp 7 – ĐỀ A Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Họ và tên HS: Điểm: Lời phê và chữ ký của GV: Duyệt đề: .........………...................... Lớp: 7/.... PART I (2.0 points): LISTENING Question 1 (1.0 pt): Listen to the text about Heart to Heart Charity and choose A, B, C or D. You will listen TWICE. (0). Heart to Heart Charity mainly helps ____________ in Viet Nam. A. homeless children B. elderly people C. poor children D. old patients 1. Last __________, they had a lot of volunteer activities in Cao Bang and Ha Giang. A. week B.month C. June D. July 2. ___________ people donated money to the charity. A. 50 B. 43 C. 134 D. 15 3. All the money was spent on buying food, ________ and medicine for the children. A. clothes B. books C. toys D. souvenirs 4. They also taught ___________________ to the children. A. maths and Vietnamese B. maths and English C. Vietnames and English D. maths and history Question 2 (1.0 pt): Listen to the text about Trang’s hobby and decide if the statements are True (T) or False (F). You will listen TWICE. Statements (0). Trang’s hobby is building dollhouses. 5. She started her hobby three years ago. 6. She shares her hobby with her sister Mi. 7. She needs cloths to make some dolls. 8. She becomes more careful and active now. PART II (3.0 points): LANGUAGE COMPONENT Question 1 (2.0pts): Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences. (0). We often ___________ to music after school. A. watch B. listen C. do D. play 9. Linda wants beautiful healthy skin. She should ______________. A. avoid crowds B. drink less water C. eat more fruit and vegetables D. go to bed late
- 10. If you often read books in ______________, your eyes will hurt. A. the library B. dim light C. your room D. the bookstore 11. Our school donated clothes _____________ poor people. A. for B. on C. with D. to 12. They feel ______________ because they do good things for the community. A. useful B. usefully C. useless D. uselessly 13. He ate a lot of fried food, so he got fat ______________. A. slow B. quick C. quickly D. quickness 14. My brother and I enjoy _______________ a horse. A. to ride B. ride C. rode D. riding 15. My mother’s hobby is cooking, so she often _______how to cook new dishes on the internet. A. learns B. learn C. learnt D. learning 16. Last year, we ______________ textbooks to help children in a rural village. A. send B. sent C. sending D. to sent Question 2 (0.5 pt): Choose the word which is pronounced differently from the others. 17. A. proverb B. together C. exercise D. greener 18. A. worked B. watched C. donated D. passed Question 3 (0.5pt): Choose the word which is stressed differently pattern from the others. 19. A. favourite B. benefit C. popular D. volunteer 20. A. collect B. cycle C. enjoy D. affect PART III (2.5 points): READING Question 1 (1.5 pt): Read the passage about Healthy living and fill in the blanks with suitable words from the box. One word is used. food sleeping less tired fat activities shape We need calories or energy to do the things we do every day such as walking, riding a bike and even (0)____________. We get calories from the (21) __________ we eat. If we eat too many, we can get (22) ____________. If we don't eat enough we feel (23) ______________and weak. People should have between 1,600 and 2,500 calories a day to stay in (24) ____________. Sports and (25) ______________ like riding a bike and running use a lot of calories. Sleeping and watching TV use (26) __________. Do you think you are eating more or less calories than you need? Question 2 (1.0 pt): Read the passage about Community service and choose the best answers A, B, C or D for the questions. Each country has many good people who take care of others. For example, some of students in the United States often spend many hours as volunteers in hospitals, orphanages or homes for the elderly. They read books to the people in these places, or they just visit them and play games with them or listen to their problems. Other young volunteers go and work in the homes of people who are sick or old. They paint, clean up, or repair their houses, do the shopping. Each city has a number of clubs where boys and girls can go and play games. Some of these clubs show movies or hold short trip to the mountains, the beaches, museums, or other places of interest. Most of these clubs use a lot of students as volunteers because they are young enough to understand the problems of younger boys and girls. 27. What do volunteers usually do to help people who are sick or old in their homes? A. They tell them stories and sing dance for them. B. They cool, sew, and wash their clothes. C. They take them to basketball games. D. They do the shopping, and repair or clean up their house. 28. Which activities are NOT available for the students at the clubs? A. playing games B. learning photography C. going to interest places D. watching films 29. Why do they use many students as volunteers? – Because _______. A. They can understand the problems of younger boys and girls.
- B. They have a lot free time. C. They know how to do the work. D. They are good at playing games and learning new things. 30. Where don’t students often do volunteer work? A. hospitals B. orphanages C. clubs D. home for the elderly PART IV (2.5 points): WRITING. Question 1 (0.5 pt): Give the correct form of the words in brackets. 31. If you have (chap) ____________________ lips, you should use lip balm. 32. She (not/go) _____________________ to the nursing home yesterday. Question 2 (0.5 pt): Rearrange these words and phrases to make meaningful sentences. 33. you/ the people/ last year/ help/ Did / in flooded areas/? / →__________________________________________________________________ 34. are/ good/ soft drinks/ not/ Fast food/ for/ and/ your health/ . / →__________________________________________________________________ Question 3 (0.5pt): Underline and correct ONE mistake in each sentence. 35. My sister wash her hands often. → ____________________________________ 36. Where do they planting vegetables now? → _____________________________ Question 4 (0.5 pt): Write the sentences, using the words and phrases suggested. 37. We/ provide/ food/ homeless children/ last Tet holiday. → __________________________________________________________________ 38. My dad /have/ big bookshelf/ because/ he /love/ collect/ old books. → __________________________________________________________________ Question 5 (0.5pt): Make meaningful sentences as directed in brackets. 39. Your room looks dark, and it looks untidy, too.(Change the following sentence into simple one) → ___________________________________________________________________ 40. Henry isn’t interested in making models of small cars and planes. (LIKE) (Rewrite the sentence, using the word given in brackets) →____________________________________________________________________ (Students with disabilities only take the multiple – choice part) __ ___________________________ (The end – Do yourself! ! Have good marks!) UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ I - NĂM HỌC 2024 – 2025 TRƯỜNG THCS HOÀNG DIỆU Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp 7 – ĐỀ B Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Họ và tên HS: Điểm: Lời phê và chữ ký của GV: Duyệt đề: .........………...................... Lớp: 7/.... PART I (2.0 points): LISTENING Question 1 (1.0 pt): Listen to the text about Heart to Heart Charity and choose A, B, C or D. You will listen TWICE. (0). Heart to Heart Charity mainly helps ____________ in Viet Nam. A. homeless children B. elderly people C. poor children D. old patients 1. Last __________, they had a lot of volunteer activities in Cao Bang and Ha Giang. A. week B.month C. June D. July
- 2. ___________ people donated money to the charity. A. 50 B. 43 C. 134 D. 15 3. All the money was spent on buying food, ________ and medicine for the children. A. clothes B. books C. toys D. souvenirs 4. They also taught ___________________ to the children. A. maths and Vietnamese B. maths and English C. Vietnames and English D. maths and history Question 2 (1.0 pt): Listen to the text about Trang’s hobby and decide if the statements are True (T) or False (F). You will listen TWICE. Statements (0). Trang’s hobby is building dollhouses. 5. She started her hobby three years ago. 6. She shares her hobby with her sister Mi. 7. She needs cloths to make some dolls. 8. She becomes more careful and active now. PART II (3.0 points): LANGUAGE COMPONENT Question 1 (2.0pts): Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences. (0). We often ___________ to music after school. A. watch B. listen C. do D. play 9. Linda wants beautiful healthy skin. She should ______________ A. avoid crowds B. drink less water C. go to bed late D. eat more fruit and vegetables 10. To avoid sunburn, we should use _______________ A. eye drops B. lip balm C. suncream D. soft drinks 11. Our school donated clothes _____________ poor people. A. to B. for C. on D. with 12. At this school fair, you can exchange…………… paper for notebook. A. using B. used C. use D. useful 13. He ate a lot of fried food, so he got fat ______________. A. slow B. quick C. quickness D. quickly 14. My younger brother loves _______________ pictures. A. draws B. drawing C. draw D. drew 15. Her son always ________________ a mask to avoid viruses. A. to wear B. wear C. wears D. wearing 16. Last summer, we ______________ street children to read and write. A. taught B. teach C. teaching D. to teach Question 2 (0.5pt): Choose the word which is pronounced differently from the others. 17. A. dancer B. service C. litter D. elderly 18. A. collected B. watered C. cleaned D. exchanged
- Question 3 (0.5pt): Choose the word which is stressed differently pattern from the others. 19. A. favourite B. benefit C. volunteer D. popular 20. A. provide B. enjoy C. avoid D. visit PART III (2.5 points): READING Question 1 (1.5pt): Read the passage about Healthy living and fill in the blanks with suitable words from the box. One word is used. food sleeping less tired fat activities shape We need calories or energy to do the things we do every day such as walking, riding a bike and even (0)____________. We get calories from the (21) __________ we eat. If we eat too many, we can get (22) ____________. If we don't eat enough we feel (23) ______________ and weak. People should have between 1,600 and 2,500 calories a day to stay in (24) ____________. Sports and (25) ______________ like riding a bike and running use a lot of calories. Sleeping and watching TV use (26) __________. Do you think you are eating more or less calories than you need? Question 2 (1.0 pt): Read the passage about Community service and choose the best answers A, B, C or D for the questions. Each country has many good people who take care of others. For example, some of students in the United States often spend many hours as volunteers in hospitals, orphanages or homes for the elderly. They read books to the people in these places, or they just visit them and play games with them or listen to their problems. Other young volunteers go and work in the homes of people who are sick or old. They paint, clean up, or repair their houses, do the shopping. Each city has a number of clubs where boys and girls can go and play games. Some of these clubs show movies or hold short trip to the mountains, the beaches, museums, or other places of interest. Most of these clubs use a lot of students as volunteers because they are young enough to understand the problems of younger boys and girls. 27. What do volunteers usually do to help people who are sick or old in their homes? A. They tell them stories and sing dance for them. B. They cool, sew, and wash their clothes. C. They take them to basketball games. D. They do the shopping, and repair or clean up their house. 28. Which activities are NOT available for the students at the clubs? A. playing games B. learning photography C. going to interest places D. watching films 29. Why do they use many students as volunteers? – Because _______. A. They can understand the problems of younger boys and girls. B. They have a lot free time. C. They know how to do the work. D. They are good at playing games and learning new things. 30. Where don’t students often do volunteer work? A. hospitals B. Orphanages C. clubs D. home for the elderly PART IV (2.5 points): WRITING. Question 1 (0.5 pt): Give the correct form of the words in brackets. 31. If she (eat) ………….……too much fast food, she can’t lose weight . 32. She (not/go) ………………………. to the nursing home yesterday. Question 2 (0.5 pt): Rearrange these words and phrases to make meaningful sentences. 33. you/ the people/ last year/ help/ Did / in flooded areas/? / →………………………………………………………………………………………… 34. food / very / mother / oil / cooks / little / with / cooking / my →………… …………… …………………………………………………………………. Question 3 (0.5pt): Underline and correct ONE mistake in each sentence. 35. My daughter watch TV every everning. → ………………………………………….
- 36. Where do they picking up litter now? → …………………………………………… Question 4 (0.5 pt): Write the sentences, using the words and phrases suggested. 37. My sister/ like/ watch TV / so/ she/ spend/ two hours/ watch TV / every day. →………………………………………………………………………………………….. 38. They/ tutor/ English/ street children/ last summer? → ……………………………………………………………………………………......... Question 5 (0.5pt): Make meaningful sentences as directed in brackets. 39. My mother eats a lot of fruit, and she eats a lot of vegetables, too. (Change the following sentence into simple one) → …………………………………………………………………………………………… 40. Linh is interested in collecting teddy bears. (love) (Rewrite the sentence, using the word given in brackets) →……………………………………………………………………………………………. (Students with disabilities only take the multiple – choice part) _________________________ (The end – Do yourself! ! Have good marks) UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM TRƯỜNG THCS HOÀNG DIỆU ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ I NĂM HỌC 2024 – 2025 Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp 7 (ĐỀ A) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) PART I: LISTENING (2.0 points) Question 1: 4 câu – 1.0 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0.25 điểm: 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. C Question 2: 4 câu – 1.0 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0.25 điểm: 5. T 6. F 7. T 8. F PART II: LANGUAGE COMPONENT: (3.0 points) Question 1: 8 câu –2.0 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0.25 điểm: 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. B Question 2: 2câu – 0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0.25 điểm: 17. A 18. C Question 3: 2câu – 0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0.25 điểm: 19. D 20. B PART II: READING (2.5points) Question 1: 6 từ – 1.5 điểm. Mỗi từ đúng đạt 0.25 điểm 21. food 22. fat 23. tired 24. shape 25. activities 26. less Question 2: 4 câu – 1.0 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0.25 điểm:
- 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C PART IV: WRITING. (2.5 points) Question 1: 2 câu –0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0.25 điểm: 31. chapped 32. didn’t/ did not go Question 2: 2 câu –0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0.25 điểm: 33. Did you help the people in flooded areas last year? 34. Fast food and soft drinks are not good for your health. Question 3: 2 câu –0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0.25 điểm: 35. wash → washes 36. do → are Question 4: 2 câu –0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0.25 điểm: 37. We provided food for/ to homeless children last Tet holiday. 38. My dad has a big bookshelf because he loves collecting/ to collect old books. Question 5: 2 câu –0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0.25 điểm: 39. Your room looks dark and untidy. 40. Henry doesn’t like making/ to make models of small cars and planes. ............................................................................... (Phần Writing, tùy theo mức độ làm bài của HS mà GV quyết định điểm cho phù hợp) (Students with disabilities only take the multiple – choice part) UBND HUYỆN NÚI THÀNH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM TRƯỜNG THCS HOÀNG DIỆU ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ I NĂM HỌC 2024 – 2025 Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp 7 (ĐỀ B) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) PART I: LISTENING (2.0 points) Question 1: 4 câu – 1.0 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0.25 điểm: 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. C Question 2: 4 câu – 1.0 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0.25 điểm: 5. T 6. F 7. T 8. F PART II: LANGUAGE COMPONENT: (3.0 points) Question 1: 8 câu –2.0 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0.25 điểm: 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. C 16. A Question 2: 2 câu – 0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0.25 điểm: 17. B 18. A Question 3: 2 câu – 0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0.25 điểm: 19. C 20. D PART II: READING (2.5points) Question 1: 6 từ – 1.5 điểm. Mỗi từ đúng đạt 0.25 điểm
- 21.food 22. fat 23. tired 24. shape 25. activities 26. less Question 2: 4 câu – 1.0 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng đạt 0.25 điểm: 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C PART IV: WRITING. (2.5 points) Question 1: 2 câu –0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0.25 điểm: 31. eats 32. didn’t/ did not go Question 2: 2 câu –0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0.25 điểm: 33. Did you help the people in flooded areas last year? 34. My mother cooks food with very little cooking oil Question 3: 2 câu –0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0.25 điểm: 35. watch → watches 36. do → are Question 4: 2 câu –0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0.25 điểm: 37. My sister likes watching TV, so she spends two hours watching TV every day. 38. Did they tutor English for street children last summer? Question 5: 2 câu –0.5 điểm. Mỗi câu đúng hoàn toàn đạt 0.25 điểm: 39. My mother eats a lot of fruit and vegetables. 40. Linh loves collecting teddy bears. (love) ............................................................................... (Phần Writing, tùy theo mức độ làm bài của HS mà GV quyết định điểm cho phù hợp) (Students with disabilities only take the multiple – choice part) LISTENING TAPESCRIPTS Question 1: Hello, I’m Minh Quang. This is July report of the Heart to Heart charity. We are a non-profit that helps poor children in Vietnam. Last July, we had a lot of volunteer activities in Cao Bang and Ha Giang. We highly appreciate your support and donation. All the books and clothes were sent to 850 poor children in the two provinces. We have received 62 million VND from 43 donors. All the money was then spent on buying food, clothes and medicines for the children. We would like to thank 50 volunteers for your time, efforts and endless love for the children. We had a meaningful trip with lots of useful and exciting activities for the children such as teaching them Vietnamese and English and telling stories to them. We always need new volunteers. Your donation of any kind will always be welcomed. So please don’t hesitate to contact us via: … Question 2: Lan: Today we'll talk about hobbies. I know that your hobby is building dollhouses. It's quite unusual, isn't it? Trang: Not really. A lot of girls like it. Lan: When did you start doing this?
- Trang: Three years ago. I read an article about building dollhouses. I loved the idea right away. Lan: Do any of your friends or relatives build dollhouses too? Trang: Yes, my cousin Mi loves building them too. Lan: Is it hard to build a dollhouse? Trang: No, it isn't. I use cardboard and glue to build the house and make the furniture. Then I make the dolls from cloth. Finally, I decorate the house. Lan: What are the benefits of the hobby? Trang: Well, I'm more patient and creative now. Tam Thạnh, ngày 25 tháng 10 năm 2024. DUYỆT CỦA BGH TTCM GIÁO VIÊN RA ĐỀ Võ Văn Ngộ Nguyễn Thị Thu Hà Nguyễn Thị Thu Hà
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