Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Trần Hưng Đạo, Kon Tum

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‘Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Trần Hưng Đạo, Kon Tum’ sau đây sẽ giúp bạn đọc nắm bắt được cấu trúc đề thi, từ đó có kế hoạch ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức một cách bài bản hơn, chuẩn bị tốt cho kỳ thi sắp. Mời các bạn cùng tham khảo nội dung chi tiết.

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi giữa học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 7 năm 2024-2025 có đáp án - Trường THCS Trần Hưng Đạo, Kon Tum

UBND TP KON TUM TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ 1- NĂM HỌC: 2024-2025 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 7 – THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT Mức độ nhận thức Tổng TT Kĩ năng Nhận biết Thông hiểu Vận dụng Vận dụng cao Thời Thời Thời Thời Thời Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ Tỉ lệ (%)/ gian gian gian gian gian (%)/câu (%)/câu (%)/câu (%)/câu câu (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) (phút) 12,5 5 12,5 7 25 1 LISTENING 5 câu 5 câu 12 10 câu 12,5 5 7,5 5 5 3 25 13 2 LANGUAGE 5 câu 3 câu 2 câu 10 câu 10 6 10 8 5 4 25 18 3 READING 4 câu 4 câu 2 câu 10 câu 5 4 10 8 10 5 25 17 4 WRITING 2 câu 4 câu a para 6 câu + 1 para 100% 40% 30% 20 % 10% Tổng 20 20 15 5 36 câu + 1 60 16 câu 12 câu 8 câu 1 para para Tỉ lệ % 40.00 30 20 10 100 Tỉ lệ chung (%) 70.00 30 100 Số câu: Nhận biết 16 Thông hiểu 12 Vận dụng 8 Vận dụng cao :1 paragrap BẢNG MÔ TẢ KĨ THUẬT ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ 1- NĂM HỌC: 2024-2025 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 - THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 PHÚT Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức Mức độ kiến thức, kĩ năng TT Kĩ năng Đơn vị kiến thức/kỹ năng Nhận Thông Vận Vận dụng Tổng Số CH cần kiểm tra, đánh giá biết hiểu dụng cao
TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL I. LISTENING 1. Nghe 1 đoạn hội thoại ngắn Nhận biết: (120-140 từ) và chọn T or F (5 - Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết về chủ 2 2 câu -1.25 điểm) với chủ điểm: điểm: Hobbies Hobbies Thông hiểu: - Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn độc 3 3 thoại/ hội thoại để tìm câu trả lời đúng. Vận dụng: - Nắm được ý chính của bài nghe để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. - Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để tìm câu trả lời đúng. 2. Học sinh nghe 1 đoạn hội thoại Nhận biết: (120-140 từ) và chọn A,B hoặc C - Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết về chủ 3 3 (5 câu-1.25 điểm); với chủ điểm: điểm: Healthy living Healthy living Thông hiểu: - Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn độc 2 2 thoại/ hội thoại để tìm câu trả lời đúng. Vận dụng: - Nắm được ý chính của bài nghe để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. - Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để tìm câu trả lời đúng. II. LANGUAGE Pronunciation Nhận biết: Ed-ending sound:/t/, /d/, /id/ Ed- ending sound: /t/, /d/ , /id/ Stress in two-syllable words 1 1 thông qua các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học. Thông hiểu: - Phân biệt được các âm (Stress in 1 1 two-syllable words) thông qua các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học. Vận dụng: - Hiểu và vận dụng vào bài nghe. Vocabulary Nhận biết: Từ vựng đã học theo chủ đề. -Nhận ra, nhớ lại, liệt kê được các từ 2 2 - Hobbies vựng theo chủ đề đã học.
- Healthy living Thông hiểu: - Community service - Hiểu và phân biệt được các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học. 1 1 - Nắm được các mối liên kết và kết hợp của từ trong bối cảnh và ngữ cảnh tương ứng. Vận dụng: - Hiểu và vận dụng được từ vựng đã 2 2 học trong văn cảnh (danh từ, động từ, tính từ và trạng từ…) Grammar Nhận biết: Các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học. - Nhận ra được các kiến thức ngữ pháp 2 2 - Multiple choice (3 câu) đã học. - Put the correct form of the verb Thông hiểu: (2 câu) - Hiểu và phân biệt các chủ điểm ngữ 1 1 - simple present pháp đã học. - simple past Vận dụng: - Verbs of liking/ disliking - Hiểu và vận dụng các kiến ngữ pháp đã học vào bài nghe, đọc, viết. III. READING 1. Cloze test Nhận biết: Hiểu được bài đọc có độ dài - Nhận ra được các thành tố ngôn ngữ 3 3 khoảng 120-150 từ về chủ điểm: và liên kết về mặt văn bản. Healthy living Thông hiểu: ( Điền từ cho sẵn vào chỗ trống) - Phân biệt được các đặc trưng, đặc 2 2 điểm các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản. Vận dụng: - Sử dụng các kiến thức ngôn ngữ và kỹ năng trong các tình huống mới. 2. Reading comprehension Nhận biết: 1 1 Hiểu được nội dung chính và nội - Thông tin chi tiết. dung chi tiết đoạn văn bản có độ Thông hiểu: dài khoảng 120-150 từ, đọc và trả 2 2 - Hiểu ý chính của bài đọc. lời câu hỏi với chủ điểm: Vận dụng: Community service - Đoán nghĩa của từ trong văn cảnh. - Hiểu, phân tích, tổng hợp ý chính của 2 2 bài để chọn câu trả lời phù hợp. IV. WRITING Nhận biết: Sentence transformation - Sử dụng các từ đã cho để sắp xếp 2 2 thành câu hoàn chỉnh.
Vận dụng: Sentence building - Hiểu câu gốc và sử dụng các từ gợi ý Viết lại câu dùng từ gợi ý hoặc từ 4 4 để viết lại câu sao cho nghĩa không cho trước thay đổi. Write an email Viết 1 email ( khoảng 70 từ) theo Vận dụng cao: 1 1 với chủ đề: - Viết 1 email para para Community service 8+1 28 para 12 Tổng 4 12 4 4 (70 (30 %) %)
UBND TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ 1 TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2024 - 2025 -------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 (Đề có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 PHÚT (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề 701 Họ và tên: ............................................................................ Lớp: ......... Scores Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2,5 marks) Task 1. Anna is talking about her hobbies. Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or false (F). You will listen TWICE. (1,25 marks) statements T F 1. Anna loves painting landscapes because she enjoys the beauty of nature. 2. Anna started painting when she was 12 years old. 3. Anna paints at least twice a week. 4. Anna thinks adventure books are boring. 5. Anna’s grandfather introduced her to stamp collecting. Task 2. Listen to the conversation twice and circle the correct answer to each of the following questions. (1,25 marks) 6. The girl jogs ……………. a week A. three times B. twice C. 4 times D. once 7. She thinks running is easier in the …………. A. spring B. autumn C. winter D. summer 8. The girl doesn't eat …………….. A. potato chips B. fruits C. cakes D. meat 9. What food does she eat in her balanced diet? A. fish and vegetables B. fish C. Vegetables D. eggs 10. What help she relax? A. Yoga B. Sleep C. Walking D. Music II. LANGUAGE (2,5 marks) Task 1. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D (2,0 marks) Page 1/23
11. The film that I ……………..last night …………….. very interesting. A. saw / was B. see / wore C. saw / were D. see / was 12. Mike is an ……………... His parents died when he was a baby. A. actress B. orphan C. engineer D. astronaut 13. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. Liam is excellent at outdoor sports like football and horse-riding. A. indoor B. individual C. public D. private 14. Choose the word with a different way of pronunciation in the underlined part. A. kissed B. called C. looked D. stopped 15. Jim doesn’t want to ……………..judo with his classmates. A. do B. have C. cook D. play 16. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others. A. active B. harmful C. enough D. healthy 17. Her painting isn’t very impressive. She needs a bit of…………….. A. paper B. creativity C. cardboard D. glue 18. He usually ……………..jogging for half an hour before breakfast. A. rides B. cycles C. goes D. takes Task 2. Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (0, 5 mark) 19. My cousin loves……………..stamps of countries in the world. (collect) 20. My children …………….. go to school on Sundays. (not/ go) III. READING ( 2,5 marks ) Task 1. Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each of the gaps to complete the following text. (1,25 marks) Breakfast is the (21) ………….. important meal of the day. It provides the nutrients your body needs for good health, the calories it needs for energy and helps (22) ………….. maintain your blood sugar level. Studies have shown that people who don’t have breakfast have a low blood sugar level and are often slow, tired, hungry and (23) …………..to concentrate. Surprisingly, breakfast actually plays a part in weight control. It's easier to (24) …………..weight if you eat in the morning rather than later in the day. Dividing the day’s calories (25) ………….. three meals helps take-off weight more efficiently than skipping breakfast and having two larger meals a day does. 21. A. most B. main C. tasty D. healthy Page 2/23
22. A. about B. to C. of D. on 23. A. enable B. able C. unable D. capable 24. A. lose B. put C. gain D. drop 25. A. into B. for C. up D. in Task 2. Read the passage. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to answer these questions. (1,25 marks) Many school nowadays require their students to spend an amount of time doing community service. Why? Because they hope those children will become caring people and see the values in giving their time and talents, and donating their toys, clothes, or money. Volunteering gives children a sense of responsibility because many people are depending on them for food, clothes, or shelter. Volunteer work can also help children learn important lessons about themselves and about life. For example, community work can make them realise what they are good at and what they enjoy doing most. A volunteer work can even help children decide what they want to do when they grow up. Finally, doing voluntary work can reduce stress and improve the children’s mental health because they might feel happier when they can bring happiness to other people. So what are you waiting for? Make a plan to start volunteer work today! 26. What do many school require their students to do now? A. Serve the school community B. Donating their toys C. Spend time doing activity D. Do community activity 27. Which of the following does volunteer work NOT help children realise? A. Their health B. Their stress C. Their likes D. Their ability 28. Why does voluntary work make children feel happier? A. Because they can do exercise B. Because they bring happiness to other people. C. Because they can make other people happy D. Because they can make friend with other people 29. What does the word "they" in line 9 refer to? A. children’s mental health B. lessons C. children D. stress and happiness 30. What is the best title for this text? A. How children decide their future job B. Why children should do community service C. Why schools organize community service D. How children do community service Page 3/23
IV. WRITING (2,5 marks) Task 1. Put the words or phrases below to make sentences. (0,5 mark) 31. can/You/do/things/ to avoid / viruses / many/. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 32. classical/ My/ likes/ mother/ to/ music/. / listening ………………………………………………………………………………………………………. Task 2. For each question, complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. Use the word in brackets and do not change it. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. (1,0 mark) 33. I like watching TV best. (HOBBY) → My favourite …………………………………………………………………………………….. 34. My mother rides to work every day. (BIKE) → My mother ………………………………………………………………..everyday. 35. The car is new. The car is comfortable. (AND) → The car is ……………………………………………………………………………………….. 36. My sister enjoys arranging flowers. (INTERESTED) → My sister ...………………………………………………………………..flowers. Task 3. Write an email of about 70 words to a friend of yours about your school activities last summer. Start your email as shown below. (1,0 mark) To: ……………………………………. Subject: School activities last summer Dear ……………, Things are good. We also did some interesting activities last summer. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… See you soon, ……………… ------ THE END ------ Page 4/23
UBND TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ 1 TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2024 - 2025 -------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 (Đề có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 PHÚT (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề 702 Họ và tên: ............................................................................ Lớp: ......... Scores Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2,5 marks) Task 1. Anna is talking about her hobbies. Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or false (F). You will listen TWICE. (1,25 marks) statements T F 1. Anna loves painting landscapes because she enjoys the beauty of nature. 2. Anna started painting when she was 12 years old. 3. Anna paints at least twice a week. 4. Anna thinks adventure books are boring. 5. Anna’s grandfather introduced her to stamp collecting. Task 2. Listen to the conversation twice and circle the correct answer to each of the following questions. (1,25 marks) 6. The girl jogs ……………. a week A. 4 times B. three times C. once D. twice 7. She thinks running is easier in the …………. A. summer B. winter C. autumn D. spring 8. The girl doesn't eat …………….. A. fruits B. potato chips C. meat D. cakes 9. What food does she eat in her balanced diet? A. Vegetables B. eggs C. fish D. fish and vegetables 10. What help she relax? A. Walking B. Yoga C. Sleep D. Music II. LANGUAGE (2,5 marks) Page 5/23
Task 1. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D (2,0marks) 11. The film that I ……………..last night …………….. very interesting. A. see / was B. saw / was C. see / wore D. saw / were 12. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others. A. enough B. active C. healthy D. harmful 13. Mike is an ……………... His parents died when he was a baby. A. astronaut B. orphan C. actress D. engineer 14. He usually ……………..jogging for half an hour before breakfast. A. goes B. rides C. takes D. cycles 15. Her painting isn’t very impressive. She needs a bit of…………….. A. creativity B. cardboard C. glue D. paper 16. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. Liam is excellent at outdoor sports like football and horse-riding. A. indoor B. individual C. public D. private 17. Jim doesn’t want to ……………..judo with his classmates. A. have B. do C. play D. cook 18. Choose the word with a different way of pronunciation in the underlined part. A. kissed B. stopped C. called D. looked Task 2. Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (0, 5 mark) 19. My children …………….. go to school on Sundays. (not/ go) 20. My cousin loves……………..stamps of countries in the world. (collect) III. READING ( 2,5 marks ) Task 1. Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each of the gaps to complete the following text. (1,25 marks) Breakfast is the (21) ………….. important meal of the day. It provides the nutrients your body needs for good health, the calories it needs for energy and helps (22) ………….. maintain your blood sugar level. Studies have shown that people who don’t have breakfast have a low blood sugar level and are often slow, tired, hungry and (23) …………..to concentrate. Surprisingly, breakfast actually plays a part in weight control. It's easier to (24) …………..weight if you eat in the morning rather than later in the day. Dividing the day’s calories (25) ………….. three meals helps take-off weight more efficiently than skipping breakfast and having two larger meals a day does. Page 6/23
21. A. most B. healthy C. tasty D. main 22. A. on B. to C. about D. of 23. A. unable B. capable C. enable D. able 24. A. lose B. drop C. put D. gain 25. A. up B. into C. in D. for Task 2. Read the passage. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to answer these questions. (1,25 marks) Many school nowadays require their students to spend an amount of time doing community service. Why? Because they hope those children will become caring people and see the values in giving their time and talents, and donating their toys, clothes, or money. Volunteering gives children a sense of responsibility because many people are depending on them for food, clothes, or shelter. Volunteer work can also help children learn important lessons about themselves and about life. For example, community work can make them realise what they are good at and what they enjoy doing most. A volunteer work can even help children decide what they want to do when they grow up. Finally, doing voluntary work can reduce stress and improve the children’s mental health because they might feel happier when they can bring happiness to other people. So what are you waiting for? Make a plan to start volunteer work today! 26. What do many school require their students to do now? A. Spend time doing activity B. Serve the school community C. Do community activity D. Donating their toys 27. Which of the following does volunteer work NOT help children realise? A. Their ability B. Their likes C. Their stress D. Their health 28. Why does voluntary work make children feel happier? A. Because they can make friend with other people B. Because they can do exercise C. Because they bring happiness to other people. D. Because they can make other people happy 29. What does the word "they" in line 9 refer to? A. children’s mental health B. lessons C. stress and happiness D. children 30. What is the best title for this text? A. How children decide their future job Page 7/23
B. Why children should do community service C. How children do community service D. Why schools organize community service IV. WRITING (2,5 marks) Task 1. Put the words or phrases below to make sentences. (0,5 mark) 31. classical/ My/ likes/ mother/ to/ music/. / listening ………………………………………………………………………………………………… 32. can/You/do/things/ to avoid / viruses / many/. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… Task 2. For each question, complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. Use the word in brackets and do not change it. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. (1,0 mark) 33. My sister enjoys arranging flowers. (INTERESTED) → My sister ...…………………………………………………………………………….flowers. 34. I like watching TV best. (HOBBY) → My favourite ……………………………………………………………………………......... 35. The car is new. The car is comfortable. (AND) → The car is ………………………………………………………………………….…….......... 36. My mother rides to work every day. (BIKE) → My mother ………………………………………………………………..everyday. Task 3. Write an email of about 70 words to a friend of yours about your school activities last summer. Start your email as shown below. (1,0 mark) To: ……………………………………. Subject: School activities last summer Dear ……………, Things are good. We also did some interesting activities last summer. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… See you soon, ……………… ------ THE END ------ Page 8/23
UBND TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ 1 TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2024 - 2025 -------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 (Đề có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 PHÚT (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề 703 Họ và tên: ............................................................................ Lớp: ......... Scores Teacher’s comments I. LISTENING (2,5 marks) Task 1. Anna is talking about her hobbies. Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or false (F). You will listen TWICE. (1,25 marks) statements T F 1. Anna loves painting landscapes because she enjoys the beauty of nature. 2. Anna started painting when she was 12 years old. 3. Anna paints at least twice a week. 4. Anna thinks adventure books are boring. 5. Anna’s grandfather introduced her to stamp collecting. Task 2. Listen to the conversation twice and circle the correct answer to each of the following questions. (1,25 marks) 6. The girl jogs ……………. a week A. three times B. 4 times C. once D. twice 7. She thinks running is easier in the …………. A. spring B. winter C. autumn D. summer 8. The girl doesn't eat …………….. A. cakes B. potato chips C. fruits D. meat 9. What food does she eat in her balanced diet? A. Vegetables B. fish C. fish and vegetables D. eggs 10. What help she relax? A. Sleep B. Walking C. Music D. Yoga II. LANGUAGE (2,5 marks) Task 1. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D (2,0marks) Page 9/23
11. He usually ……………..jogging for half an hour before breakfast. A. cycles B. takes C. rides D. goes 12. Mike is an ……………... His parents died when he was a baby. A. actress B. orphan C. engineer D. astronaut 13. Jim doesn’t want to ……………..judo with his classmates. A. play B. cook C. have D. do 14. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. Liam is excellent at outdoor sports like football and horse-riding. A. private B. public C. indoor D. individual 15. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others. A. active B. healthy C. harmful D. enough 16. Choose the word with a different way of pronunciation in the underlined part. A. stopped B. kissed C. looked D. called 17. Her painting isn’t very impressive. She needs a bit of…………….. A. glue B. paper C. cardboard D. creativity 18. The film that I ……………..last night …………….. very interesting. A. saw / were B. see / was C. saw / was D. see / wore Task 2. Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (0, 5 mark) 19. My children …………….. go to school on Sundays. (not/ go) 20. My cousin loves……………..stamps of countries in the world. (collect) III. READING ( 2,5 marks ) Task 1. Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each of the gaps to complete the following text. (1,25 marks) Breakfast is the (21) ………….. important meal of the day. It provides the nutrients your body needs for good health, the calories it needs for energy and helps (22) ………….. maintain your blood sugar level. Studies have shown that people who don’t have breakfast have a low blood sugar level and are often slow, tired, hungry and (23) …………..to concentrate. Surprisingly, breakfast actually plays a part in weight control. It's easier to (24) …………..weight if you eat in the morning rather than later in the day. Dividing the day’s calories (25) ………….. three meals helps take-off weight more efficiently than skipping breakfast and having two larger meals a day does. 21. A. tasty B. healthy C. main D. most Page 10/23
22. A. to B. on C. of D. about 23. A. enable B. unable C. capable D. able 24. A. gain B. drop C. lose D. put 25. A. for B. into C. in D. up Task 2. Read the passage. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to answer these questions. (1,25 marks) Many school nowadays require their students to spend an amount of time doing community service. Why? Because they hope those children will become caring people and see the values in giving their time and talents, and donating their toys, clothes, or money. Volunteering gives children a sense of responsibility because many people are depending on them for food, clothes, or shelter. Volunteer work can also help children learn important lessons about themselves and about life. For example, community work can make them realise what they are good at and what they enjoy doing most. A volunteer work can even help children decide what they want to do when they grow up. Finally, doing voluntary work can reduce stress and improve the children’s mental health because they might feel happier when they can bring happiness to other people. So what are you waiting for? Make a plan to start volunteer work today! 26. What do many school require their students to do now? A. Serve the school community B. Donating their toys C. Spend time doing activity D. Do community activity 27. Which of the following does volunteer work NOT help children realise? A. Their health B. Their ability C. Their likes D. Their stress 28. Why does voluntary work make children feel happier? A. Because they bring happiness to other people. B. Because they can do exercise C. Because they can make friend with other people D. Because they can make other people happy 29. What does the word "they" in line 9 refer to? A. children B. stress and happiness C. children’s mental health D. lessons 30. What is the best title for this text? A. How children do community service B. How children decide their future job Page 11/23
C. Why schools organize community service D. Why children should do community service IV. WRITING (2,5 marks) Task 1. Put the words or phrases below to make sentences. (0,5 mark) 31. can/You/do/things/ to avoid / viruses / many/. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… 32. classical/ My/ likes/ mother/ to/ music/. / listening ………………………………………………………………………………………………… Task 2. For each question, complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. Use the word in brackets and do not change it. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. (1,0 mark) 33. The car is new. The car is comfortable. (AND) → The car is …………………………………………………………………………………….... 34. My mother rides to work every day. (BIKE) → My mother ……………………………………………………………………………everyday. 35. I like watching TV best. (HOBBY) → My favourite …………………………………………………………………………….......... 36. My sister enjoys arranging flowers. (INTERESTED) → My sister ...……………………………………………………………………………...flowers. Task 3. Write an email of about 70 words to a friend of yours about your school activities last summer. Start your email as shown below. (1,0 mark) To: ……………………………………. Subject: School activities last summer Dear ……………, Things are good. We also did some interesting activities last summer. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… See you soon, ……………… ------ THE END ------ Page 12/23
UBND TP KON TUM KIỂM TRA GIỮA KỲ 1 TRƯỜNG THCS TRẦN HƯNG ĐẠO NĂM HỌC 2024 - 2025 -------------------- MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 (Đề có 03 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 PHÚT (không kể thời gian phát đề) Mã đề 704 Họ và tên: ............................................................................ Lớp: ......... Scores Teacher’s comments I.LISTENING (2,5 marks) Task 1. Anna is talking about her hobbies. Listen and decide if the following statements are True (T) or false (F). You will listen TWICE. (1,25 marks) statements T F 1. Anna loves painting landscapes because she enjoys the beauty of nature. 2. Anna started painting when she was 12 years old. 3. Anna paints at least twice a week. 4. Anna thinks adventure books are boring. 5. Anna’s grandfather introduced her to stamp collecting. Task 2. Listen to the conversation twice and circle the correct answer to each of the following questions. (1,25 marks) 6. The girl jogs ……………. a week A. three times B. once C. 4 times D. twice 7. She thinks running is easier in the …………. A. winter B. spring C. summer D. autumn 8. The girl doesn't eat …………….. A. cakes B. fruits C. potato chips D. meat 9. What food does she eat in her balanced diet? A. fish B. Vegetables C. eggs D. fish and vegetables 10. What help she relax? A. Walking B. Sleep C. Music D. Yoga II. LANGUAGE (2,5 marks) Task 1. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D (2,0marks) 11. Jim doesn’t want to ……………..judo with his classmates. Page 13/23
A. cook B. have C. do D. play 12. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence. Liam is excellent at outdoor sports like football and horse-riding. A. individual B. indoor C. public D. private 13. Mike is an ……………... His parents died when he was a baby. A. engineer B. orphan C. actress D. astronaut 14. The film that I ……………..last night …………….. very interesting. A. see / wore B. saw / was C. saw / were D. see / was 15. Her painting isn’t very impressive. She needs a bit of…………….. A. cardboard B. glue C. paper D. creativity 16. Choose the word with a different way of pronunciation in the underlined part. A. looked B. called C. stopped D. kissed 17. Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others. A. healthy B. enough C. active D. harmful 18. He usually ……………..jogging for half an hour before breakfast. A. takes B. rides C. goes D. cycles Task 2. Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets: (0, 5 mark) 19. My cousin loves……………..stamps of countries in the world. (collect) 20. My children …………….. go to school on Sundays. (not/ go) III. READING ( 2,5 marks ) Task 1. Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each of the gaps to complete the following text. (1,25 marks) Breakfast is the (21) ………….. important meal of the day. It provides the nutrients your body needs for good health, the calories it needs for energy and helps (22) ………….. maintain your blood sugar level. Studies have shown that people who don’t have breakfast have a low blood sugar level and are often slow, tired, hungry and (23) …………..to concentrate. Surprisingly, breakfast actually plays a part in weight control. It's easier to (24) …………..weight if you eat in the morning rather than later in the day. Dividing the day’s calories (25) ………….. three meals helps take-off weight more efficiently than skipping breakfast and having two larger meals a day does. 21. A. healthy B. tasty C. main D. most Page 14/23
22. A. to B. about C. of D. on 23. A. unable B. able C. capable D. enable 24. A. gain B. lose C. drop D. put 25. A. in B. up C. into D. for Task 2. Read the passage. Choose the letter A, B, C or D to answer these questions. (1,25 marks) Many school nowadays require their students to spend an amount of time doing community service. Why? Because they hope those children will become caring people and see the values in giving their time and talents, and donating their toys, clothes, or money. Volunteering gives children a sense of responsibility because many people are depending on them for food, clothes, or shelter. Volunteer work can also help children learn important lessons about themselves and about life. For example, community work can make them realise what they are good at and what they enjoy doing most. A volunteer work can even help children decide what they want to do when they grow up. Finally, doing voluntary work can reduce stress and improve the children’s mental health because they might feel happier when they can bring happiness to other people. So what are you waiting for? Make a plan to start volunteer work today! 26. What do many school require their students to do now? A. Spend time doing activity B. Donating their toys C. Serve the school community D. Do community activity 27. Which of the following does volunteer work NOT help children realise? A. Their health B. Their stress C. Their ability D. Their likes 28. Why does voluntary work make children feel happier? A. Because they can make friend with other people B. Because they can make other people happy C. Because they can do exercise D. Because they bring happiness to other people. 29. What does the word "they" in line 9 refer to? A. stress and happiness B. children’s mental health C. lessons D. children 30. What is the best title for this text? A. How children do community service B. Why children should do community service Page 15/23
C. Why schools organize community service D. How children decide their future job IV. WRITING (2,5 marks) Task 1. Put the words or phrases below to make sentences. (0,5 mark) 31. can/You/do/things/ to avoid / viruses / many/. ………………………………………………………………………………………………… 32. classical/ My/ likes/ mother/ to/ music/. / listening ………………………………………………………………………………………………… Task 2. For each question, complete the second sentence so that it means the same as the first one. Use the word in brackets and do not change it. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. (1,0 mark) 33. My sister enjoys arranging flowers. (INTERESTED) → My sister ...……………………………………………………………………………....flowers. 34. The car is new. The car is comfortable. (AND) → The car is ……………………………………………………………………………………….. 35. My mother rides to work every day. (BIKE) → My mother ………………………………………………………………………….....everyday. 36. I like watching TV best. (HOBBY) → My favourite ………………………………………………………………………………….... Task 3. Write an email of about 70 words to a friend of yours about your school activities last summer. Start your email as shown below. (1,0 mark) To: ……………………………………. Subject: School activities last summer Dear ……………, Things are good. We also did some interesting activities last summer. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… See you soon, ……………… ------ THE END ------ Page 16/23