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Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Kim Long, Châu Đức

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Kim Long, Châu Đức

  1. MA TRẬN ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ II NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 6 - THỜI GIAN LÀM BÀI: 60 phút Mức độ Vận Vận Nhận Thông Số Số dụng dụng TT Dạng bài Chuẩn kiến thức biết hiểu bậc thấp bậc cao câu điểm T T T TN TL TL TL TL N N N - Multiple choice: 4 2 2 I Listening (3 options) 8 2.0 - Gap - filling: 4 2 1 1 - Sound: 1 - Conjunctions: 1 - Vocabulary: 1 - Preposition: 1 - Imperatives: 1 Multiple - Possessive II choice pronouns: 1 5 3 2 10 2.5 (4 options) - Verb form/tense: 1 - Possessive adjectives: 1 - Conversation: 1 - Finding mistakes: 1(underlined parts) A. Guided cloze: 5 (3 options) 2 2 1 2 Reading III 2 10 2.5 (2 passages) B. Multi. Choice: 5 2 2 1 (3 options) - Rewrite: 1 - Make questions: 1 2 1 1 4 2.0 IV Writing - Sent-building: 1 - Reorder words: 1 1 1 1.0 - Open question: 1 Tổng số câu / Tổng điểm 15 / 4.05 11 / 3.3 6 / 1.65 1 / 1.0 33 10.0 Tỉ lệ % 40,5% 33% 16,5% 10%
  2. KIỂM TRA GIỮA KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 Trường THCS Kim Long MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 6 Lớp: 6A …Họ tên HS: …………...................................................... Điểm Nhận xét I. LISTENING Part 1. Listen and circle the correct answers (1pt) 1. How did Michael go on holiday? A. by train B. by bike C. by car 2. Where did Michael stay? A. on the beach B. under some trees next to a river C. in a field 3. What did Michael do on holiday? A. did some fishing B. went swimming C. played football 4. What did Michael eat on holiday? A. burgers B. fish C. chips Part 2. Listen and fill the missing information (1pt) THE NEW MUSEUM 1. What's inside? old _______________________________ 2. Open which days? from Tuesday to ____________________ 3. Open which times? opens at 9.30 and closes at ___________ 4. Address: 16 ___________________________ Road II. Multiple choice (2.5 pts) 1. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. flower B. tower C. how D. snow 2. My friend Mark is very good ________ volleyball. He plays volleyball very well. A. in B. at C. on D. with 3. We love outdoor activities, ________ we spend every Saturday afternoon playing sports. A. but B. so C. and D. Ø 4. Eiffel Tower is one of well - known ________ in France. A. museums B. landmarks C. capitals D. cities 5. ________draw on the walls and tables, please. A. Don’t B. Do C. Should D. Shouldn't 6. The book is ……………….., but you are welcome to read it. A. my B. mine C. yours D. your 7. I was at the gym last Sunday, but I ________you there. A. wasn’t see B. don’t see C. not saw D. didn’t see 8. Jane’s voice is good. _________ voice is good, too. A. I B. Mine C. My D. Me 9. Minh: Did you do any exercise or play any sports yesterday? -Van: _________ A. Yes, I play tennis. B. Yes, I do. C. Yes, I played tennis with my friends. D. No, I don’t. 10. Yesterday I walk around Bo Ho lake with my friends. Then we went to Dang Khoa bookstore. A B C D III. Reading comprehension A. Choose and circle the best answers to complete the text below (1.25 pt.)
  3. Television is one of man’s most important means (1) ______ communication. It brings pictures and sounds from around the world into millions of (2) ______. Through television, home viewers can see and learn about people, places (3) ______ things in faraway lands. In addition to all these things, television brings its (4) ______ a steady stream of programmes that are designed to entertain. In fact, TV provides many more entertainment programmes (5) ______ any other kind. The programmes include dramas, comedies, sports, and motion pictures. 1. A. for B. of C. with D. on 2. A. homes B. schools C. markets D. parks 3. A. so B. but C. or D. and 4. A. seers B. watchers C. viewers D. listeners 5. A. as B. like C. than D. same B. Read the passage and circle the best answer to each question (1.25 pt.) Pelé was born on October 21st, 1940 in the countryside of Brazil. Pelé’s father was a professional football player and taught Pelé how to play at a very young age. Pelé began his career at the age of 15 when he started playing for Santos football club. In 1958, at the age of 17, Pelé won his first World Cup. It was the first time the World Cup was show on TV. People around the world watched Pelé play and cheered. 1. Pelé was born in ________ A. Brazil B. Argentina C. America 2. He began playing football when he was ________ A. 10 B. 15 C. 17 3. Pelé ________ in 1958. A. was born B. won his first World Cup C. started playing for Santos football club 4. Which sentence is NOT true? A. Pelé was born on October 21st, 1940. B. Pelé’s father was a professional baseball player. C. Pelé won his first World Cup when he was 17. 5. How old is Pelé now? –He’s ________ years old. A. 80 B. 84 C. 86 IV. Do as directed in brackets(3.0 pts) 1. He visited Nha Trang yesterday. (Make question with the underline words)  ________________________________________________________ 2. is/ double-decker buses/ for/ Hong Kong/ famous/ its (Rearrange the words to make a complete sentence) _____________________________________________________________________________ 3. There /be/ interesting football match/ TV/ last night. (Write a complete sentence, using the words given) _____________________________________________________________ 4. This is her new shirt. (Rewrite the sentence, using a Possessive Pronoun)  This new shirt___________________________________________________ 5. Write a paragraph about a city in your country. (about 40 words) .............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................. The end
  4. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM-KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 6 I. Listening (2.0 pts) (0.25 point for each correct sentence) Part 1. Listen and circle the correct answers (1pt) 1. How did Michael go on holiday? A. by train B. by bike C. by car 2. Where did Michael stay? A. on the beach B. under some trees next to a river C. in a field 3. What did Michael do on holiday? A. did some fishing B. went swimming C. played football 4. What did Michael eat on holiday? A. burgers B. fish C. chips Part 2. Listen and fill the missing information. (1pt) 1. What's inside? old trains 2. Open which days? from Tuesday to Saturday 3. Open which times? opens at 9.30 and closes at 5.15 4. Address: 16 Digby Road II. Multiple choice(2.5 pts) (0.25 point for each correct sentence) 1. D. snow 2. B. at 3. B. so 4. B. landmarks 5. A. Don’t 6. B. mine 7. D. didn’t see 8. C. My 9. C. Yes, I played tennis with my friends 10. A. walk III. Reading comprehension A. Choose and circle the best answers to complete the text below (1.25 pt.) 1. A. for B. of C. with D. on 2. A. homes B. schools C. markets D. parks 3. A. so B. but C. or D. and 4. A. seers B. watchers C. viewers D. listeners 5. A. as B. like C. than D. same B. Read the passage and circle the best answer to each question (1.25 pt.) 1. Pelé was born in ________ A. Brazil B. Argentina C. America 2. He began playing football when he was ________ A. 10 B. 15 C. 17 3. Pelé ________ in 1958. A. was born B. won his first World Cup C. started playing for Santos football club 4. Which sentence is NOT true? A. Pelé was born on October 21st, 1940. B. Pelé’s father was a professional baseball player. C. Pelé won his first World Cup when he was 17. 5. How old is Pelé now? –He’s________ years old. A. 80 B. 84 C. 86 IV. Do as directed in brackets (3.0 pts) 1. Where did he visit yesterday? (0.5 pt) 2. Hong Kong is famous for its double-decker buses. (0.5 pt) 3. There was an interesting football match on TV last night. (0.5 pt) 4. This new shirt is hers. (0.5 pt) 5. Write a paragraph about 40 words (1.0 pt.) (Căn cứ bài viết thực tế của học sinh để chấm) --------- The end of the test ---------
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