Tham khảo “Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Lý Thường Kiệt, Hội An” để giúp các em làm quen với cấu trúc đề thi, đồng thời ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức căn bản trong chương trình học. Tham gia giải đề thi để ôn tập và chuẩn bị kiến thức và kỹ năng thật tốt cho kì thi sắp diễn ra nhé!
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Nội dung Text: Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường TH&THCS Lý Thường Kiệt, Hội An
- TRƯỜNG TH-THCS LÝ THƯỜNG KIỆT MATRIX FOR THE SECOND MID-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 9)
School year: 2023-2024
PARTS No. of Mar Task types Re Com Low High
Ques k App App
TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL
Pronunciation: Indicate the word whose
2 0.5 underlined part is pronounced differently 0,5
form the others/ stress
LANGUAGE Vocabulary: MCQs: Circle the best 0,5
COMPONENT 4 1,0 option 0,5
(3,0)
Grammar: MCQs: Circle the best option
6 1,5
0,5 1,0
Read the text and fill in the blank (with
READING 6 1,5 1,0 0,5
suitable words from the box)
(2,5) Read the text and circle the best answer:
4 1,0 0,5 0,5
3 1,5 (Sentence transformation) Rewrite the
sentences so that its meaning keeps
0,5 0,5 0,5
unchanged
WRITING
(2,5)
2 1,0 (Sentence rearrangement) Complete the
sentences with words given
1,0
4 1,0 - Listen and decide True/False 1,0
LISTENING
(2,0) 4 1,0 - Listen and fill in the blanks
1,0
TOTAL(10,0) 35 10.0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0
- TRƯỜNG TH-THCS LÝ THƯỜNG KIỆT SPECIFICATION FOR THE SECOND MID-TERM TEST
ENGLISH 9
School year: 2023-2024
PARTS CONTENTS No. Ma Task types Re Com Low App High App
of rk
Ques TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL
Pronunciation: Indicate the word
-Q1: sounds /i:/ & /eə/ whose underlined
-Q2: sounds /ɒ /& /ə / 2 0.5 part is pronounced 0,5
differently form the
others
Vocabulary:
- Q3: 1 quantifier of cooking
and preparing food
-Q4: 1 verb related to tourism
4 1.0
-Q5: 1 noun about learning 0,5 0,5
MCQs: Circle the
language
best option
-Q6: 1 collocation
LANGUAGE
COMPONENT Grammar points:
(3,0) -Q 7: 1 sentence about
prepositions
-Q8: 1 sentence about articles
-Q 9: 1 sentence about
conditional sentences type 2
-Q10: 1 sentence about 6 1.5 MCQs: Circle the
relative clause 0,5 1.0
best option
-Q11: 1 sentence about
conditional sentences type 1
-Q12: 1 useful expression
- -Q13: 1 verb
(Cloze test) Read the
-Q14: 1 preposition
text about eating
-Q15: 1 conjunction 6 1. 5
habits and fill in the 1.0 0.5
-Q16: 1 modal verb
blank (with suitable
-Q17: 1 adjective
words from the box)
-Q18: 1 noun
READING - Q19: Choose the best
(2,5) answer for general ( Reading
information comprehension)
-Q20: Choose the best answer 4 1.0 Read the text about
for specific information 0.75 0,5
outdoor activities
-Q21: Word reference and circle the best
-Q22: Choose the best answer answer:
for specific information
-Q23: 1 sentence about
(Sentence
relative clause
transformation)
-Q24: 1 sentence about
Rewrite the
conditional sentences type 2 3 1,5 0,5 0.5 0.5
sentences so as its
-Q25: 1 sentence about
meaning keeps
preposition going with
WRITING unchanged
adjective
(2,5)
-Q26: 1 sentence about
(Sentence
conditional sentences type 1
completion)
-Q27: 1 sentence about
Complete the
relative clause 2 1.0 1.0
sentences with
words given
-Q28-31: True/False - Listen to a short
LISTENING statement 1.0 conversation about 1.0
4
(2,0) tourism
-Sen 32-35: Gap- filling - Listen to a recipe
4 1.0 1,0
TOTAL
35 10,0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0
(10,0)
- Trường …………………………………… KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ II
Lớp: / MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 9
Họ và tên:………………………………… Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
Ngày kiểm tra: / 3/ 2024
Điểm Nhận xét của giáo viên
A. LANGUAGE COMPONENT, SPEAKING (3.0 points)
I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently form the others. (0.5 pt)
1. A. steam B. spread C. cream. D. deep-fry
2. A. dominance B.exotic C. operate D. official
III. Choose the best answers by circling A, B, C or D. (2.0 pts)
3. We also need a head of cauliflower and a ________of celery.
A. head B. stick C. loaf D. grams
4. Make sure you ________ a hotel before you come to our island, especially in the summer.
A. keep B. put C. book D. buy
5. She spoke English with a(n) _________ that I couldn't understand.
A. accent B. stress C. intonation D. tone
6. I think we should go to Chinese Club , but it is not ___________ . I prefer English.
A. my favourite subject B. my glass of tea C. my cup of tea D. my favourite games.
7. Louis is virtually bilingual_________ Dutch and German.
A. on B. in C. for D. with
8. Unfortunately, fewer people came to ________ festival than last year.
A. a B. O C. the D. an
9. If my English was good enough, I ________ find a good job.
A. can B. couldn’t C. can’t D. could
10. The French couple ___________ live next door can get by in Vietnamese.
A. who B. which C. whom D. whose
11. Would you go to his party if he you?
A. invited B. invites C. will invite D. would invite
12. “I’m going to France for my summer holiday.” “_______”
A. Lucky you! B. Good idea! C. OK. Cool! D. Oh my God!
B. READING (2.5 points)
I. Complete the passage with the suitable words given in the box. (1.5pts)
another although enough will showed for
I was really impressed by the Cobb salad. It is an American garden salad made from
chopped salad greens, tomato, bacon, chicken breast, hard-boiled egg, avocado, cheese, and red-wine
vinaigrette. (13)__________ the salad requires quite a few ingredients, it is quick to make. The
American chef at the festival (14)_________ me the way to make the salad and it took me only 15
minutes to complete. How amazing! The next day I made Cobb salad (15)_______ my mum for
lunch, and she loved it right away.
(16)_______ good dish is steak pie, a traditional British meat pie made from stewing steak and beef
gravy, enclosed in a pastry shell. Unfortunately, I did not have (17) ____________ time to listen to the
chef give instructions on how to make this dish. However, I tried it and it was brilliant.
Next year if there is another food festival, I (18)__________ definitely join in.
II. Read the text and circle the best answer. (1.0 pt)
I have just received a letter from my brother, Tim. He is in Australia. He has been there for six
months. Tim is an engineer. He is working for a big firm and he has already visited a great number
of different places in Australia. He has just bought an Australian car and has gone to Alice Springs, a
- small town in the center of Australia. He will soon visit Darwin. From there he will fly to Perth. My
brother has never been abroad before, so he is finding this trip very exciting.
19. Whom was this passage written about?
A. Tim B. Tim’s brother or sister C. an engineer D. Darwin
20. What is Alice Springs?
A. It is a beauty spot in Australia.
B. It is a small town in Australia.
C. It is a big firm Tim works for.
D. It is Tim’s car.
21. What does the word “there” in line 4 refer to?
A. His home town B. Alice Springs C. Darwin D. Australia
22. Why is Tim finding the trip very exciting?
A. Because he has visited a great number of different places in Australia.
B. Because he has just bought an Australian car on the trip.
C. Because he can fly to Perth.
D. Because it is the first time he has been abroad.
C. WRITING (2.5 pts)
I. Rewrite the sentences so that its meaning keeps unchanged. (1.5 pts)
23. English has borrowed many words. The words come from other languages. (which)
=> English………..................................................................................................
24. Mai practices speaking English everyday, so she is very good at it.. (wouldn’t)
=> If Mai................................................................................................................
25. Her brother studied at university (a)
=> My brother is.......................................................................................................
II. Make sentence from the cue. (1.0 pt)
26. If you /do/ more English exercises, your English / be / improve.
=>.........................................................................................................................
27. new girl/ name/ be/ Mai/ be/ reasonably good/ English.
=>.........................................................................................................................
D. LISTENING: (2.0 points)
I. Listen to a talk about eating habits and tick True or False (1,0) (1.0 pt)
Statements True False
28 Nicolas feels difficult to buy lunch at the school canteen.
2 He’s considering changing his eating habits.
9
3 Mây thinks breakfast should include nutritious food.
0
31 She cooks dinner for her family
II. Listen to a talk. Fill each blank with a word (1,0 pt)
32. Tourism plays a key role in _________ growth.
33. Tourism also brings _________ opportunities to all kinds of people.
34. Thanks to tourism, young people are encouraged to stay in their _________ to build a good life
rather than move to big cities.
35. Finally, tourism brings cultural benefits, learn about the history and ________ of a place, and
spread them around the world.
********************* THE END ********************
- ANSWER KEYS
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
Tiếng Anh 9 (Thí điểm)
A. LANGUAGE COMPONENT TEST (2,5pts)
I.
1.B 2.D
II.
3.B 4.C 5.A 6.D 7.D 8.C 9.B 10.C 11.A 12.A
B .READING (2,5pts)
I.
13.Although 14.showed 15. for 16. another 17.enough 18.will
II.
19.A 20.B 21.C 22.D
B. WRITING (3 pts)
I
23. English has borrowed many words which come from other language.
24. If Mai didn’t practice speaking English everyday, she wouldn’t be good at it.
25. My brother is a university student.
II.
26. If you do more English exercises, your English can be improved
27. The new girl whose name is Mai is reasonably good at English.
D. LISTENING (2pts)
I.
1.F 2. T 3. T 4. F
II.
5.economic 6. job 7. hometown 8. culture
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