Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường PTDTNT THCS Nam Giang

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MATRIX FOR THE SECOND MID-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 6) School year: 2023-2024 No. of Com Low High PARTS Mark Task types Re Ques App App TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL - Listen and circle the LISTENING 4 1,0 1,0 best answer (2,0) - Listen and write 4 1,0 1,0 Pronunciation: Indicate the word whose underlined part 4 1,0 1,0 LANGUAG is pronounced differently form the E others COMPONE Vocabulary: MCQs: NT 3 0,75 0,5 Circle the best option 0,25 (3,0) Grammar: MCQs: 5 1,25 0,75 0,5 Circle the best option Read the passage and 4 1,0 circle the best answer 0,5 0,5 READING Read the passage and (2,5) circle the best answer 6 1,5 1,0 0,5 to fill in each blank in the passage 2 0,5 (Error identification) Circle A, B, C or D 0,5 which is not correct in standard English (Sentence building) Rearrange the WRITING 2 1,0 0,5 0,5 sentences from the (2,5) words given. (Sentence transformation) 2 1,0 0,5 0,5 Rewrite the sentences as directed. TOTAL 36 10,0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0)
SPECIFICATION FOR THE SECOND MID-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 6) School year: 2023-2024 No. of Com Low App High PARTS Mark Task types Re CONTENTS Ques App TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL -Questions 1- Listen to the 4: Multiple conversation choice for between Nam Wh-questions 1,0 and Mrs. Nhi, 4 1,0 his aunt. Circle the best LISTEN answer A, B, C ING or D. (2,0) -Questions: Listen and 5-8: Listen complete the and write student’s note. 4 1,0 Write ONE 1,0 WORD or NUMBER in each blank. Pronunciatio n: -Question 9: sound /æ/ and /ə / in words with the letter “a” -Question 10: sound /ə / MCQs: and // in Indicate the words with word whose the letter “o” 4 1,0 underlined part 1,0 LANGU -Question 11: is pronounced AGE sound /e/ and differently COMP form the others /ə/ in words ONENT with the letter (3,0) “e” -Question 12: sound /i/ and /ai/ in words with the letter “i”
Vocabulary: -Question 13: adjective “tasty” in the context -Question 14: 3 0,75 MCQs: Circle noun 0,25 0,5 “goggles” in the best option the context -Question 15: adjective “peaceful” in the context Grammar points: -Question 16: verb “didn’t see” in the past simple tense -Question 17: Possessive adjective ”my” in the context -Question 18: 5 1,25 MCQs: Circle 0,75 0,5 verb “close” the best option in the imperative -Question 19: Wh-question “What” in the exclamation -Question 20: Wh-question “How often” in the context
-Question 21: Choose the best answer for a WH- question -Question 22: MCQs: Choose the (Reading best answer comprehension for a WH- ) Read the question 4 1,0 passage about -Question 23: 0,5 0,5 Sports and Choose the games and best answer choose the for a WH- correct answer question A, B, C or D -Question 24: Choose the best answer for a WH- question - READI NG Question 25: (2,5) 1 verb in the present continuous simple -Question 26: 1 word about MCQs: Read a preposition the passage of place and choose the -Question 27: 6 1,5 correct answer 1 verb in the 1,0 0,5 A, B, C or D to past simple fill in each -Question 28: blank in the 1 to be in the passage past simple -Question 29: 1 verb in the past simple -Question 30: 1 verb in the past simple
-Question 31: (Error 1 sentence identification) about Circle A, B, C conjunctions. 2 0,5 or D which is 0,5 -Question 32: not correct in 1 sentence standard about the English past tense -Question 33: 1 sentence about Wh- WRITI question Rearrange the 2 1,0 0,5 NG -Question 34: sentences 0,5 (2,5) 1 sentence about the past tense -Question 35: 1 sentence about the conjunctions. Rewrite the -Question 36: 2 1,0 0,5 0,5 sentences 1 sentence about the possessive pronoun TOTAL 36 10,0 4,0 3,0 2,0 1,0 (10,0)
ỦY BAN NHÂN DÂN HUYỆN NAM GIANG ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ II TRƯỜNG PHỔ THÔNG DÂN TỘC NỘI TRÚ Năm học: 2023 – 2024 TRUNG HỌC CƠ SỞ NAM GIANG Môn: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 6 Thời gian: 60 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề A. LISTENING: (2pts) I. Listen to the conversation between Jack and Sam, his friend. Circle the best answer A, B or C. You will listen TWICE. (1pt) 1. Which programme is Jack searching for? A. He’s channel-surfing. B. He wants to watch the baseball tournament. C. He’s playing sports. D. He’s doing judo. 2. Which channel is the tennis tournament actually on? A. Channel 15 B. Channel 53 C. Channel 23 D. Channel 50 3. Which programme does Jack like? A. Sport programmes B. Live events C. Cartoons D. News 4. What does Sam want to do? A. To make animated films B. To play baseball C. To learn something about talented people D. To sing a song II. Listen and complete the student’s note. Write ONE WORD OR NUMBER in each blank. You will listen TWICE. (1pt) TALENT SHOW RULES - Competitors: (5) ______________ - Talent: dancing, singing, (6) _____________ a musical instrument - Length: (7) ______________ – 6 minutes - Judges: teachers - Last day of registration: (8) _____________ B. LANGUAGE COMPONENT: (3pts)
I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. (1pt) 9. A. karate B. racket C. character D. animated 10. A. pagoda B. postcard C. photo D. goggles 11. A.clever B. education C. comedy D. decorate 12. A.fit B. kind C. clip D. live II. Choose the best option to complete each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D. (2pts) 13. The apple pie was so ___________ that I couldn’t help eating it. A. sunny B. friendly C. tasty D. rainy 14. Before swimming, you must wear a pair of ___________ to protect your eyes. A. pens B. goggles C. paddles D. balls 15. I like sitting on the nearby beach at sunrise. It’s so ___________ because there are few people there at that time. A. crowded B. helpful C. peaceful D. tasty 16. I was at Jame’s party yesterday but I ________you there. A. don’t see B. not saw C. doesn’t saw D. didn’t see 17. Oh no, these are ________ pencils. Yours are over there! A. my B. mine C. me D. it 18. _______ the window. It’s windy outside. A. closes B. to close C. closing D. close 19. ________beautiful flowers! A. Who B. What C. Which D. Where 20. Kate: How _______ do you play computer games? Nick: Two or three times a week. A. often B. many C. long D. much C. READING: (2,5pts) I. Read the text and choose the best answer. (1pt) Tran Hieu Ngan is a Taekwondo athlete. She participated in the 2000 Sydney Summer Olympics where she won a silver medal. It was the only medal (huy chương) won by a Vietnamese during those Olympic games and the first of Vietnam’s four Olympic medals. Tran Hieu Ngan was born in 1974, in a small fishing town in Tuy Hoa, Phu Yen. She was the fourth child in a family with eight children. She took up taekwondo when she was 14 and won her first national championship in 1994. She also won an Asian tournament in 1998. At the Olympics in 2000, when Ngan won the silver medal, everyone was so happy and proud of her. After her success in Sydney, Ngan decided to leave the ring. Now, she coaches young athletes at a training centre in Ho Chi Minh City. Tran Hieu Ngan is a shining example of her never-ending practice and constant efforts. 21. What is the best title for the passage? A. A sportswoman who makes history. B. Popular sports in Olympic Games.
C. Doing taekwondo is great! D. Viewers in Olympic Games. 22. How many Olympic medals did Vietnam win before the year 2000? A. Zero B. One C. Four D. Six 23. When did Tran Hieu Ngan take up taekwondo? A. In 1974 B. In 1988 C. In 1998 D. In 1964 24. What is Hieu Ngan’s job at the moment? A. A taekwondo athlete B. A company manager C. A sport coach D. A singer II. Choose the correct word A, B, C or D for each of the gaps to complete the following text. (1,5pt) Dear Dad, Greetings from Perth. I’m currently (25)________ this postcard while having a picnic (26)_______ the river bank. My friend and I just got off the boat we (27)_______and we had a lovely time riding it along the river. The scenery (28)________lovely so I took a lot of pictures. I can’t wait to show you them when I get home. Yesterday, we (29)______to the beach. I took part in a little volleyball competition. It wasn’t my friend’s first time playing but it was mine. Fortunately, the locals were very helpful and taught me how to play. In the end, we (30)_____ win any prizes but I had a ton of fun. I love Perth but I also miss you and Mom. See you soon, Kate 25. A. write B. writes C. to write D. writing 26. A.in B. at C. on D. to 27. A.rented B. rent C. to rent D. renting 28. A.were B. was C. is D. are 29. A.went B. go C. goes D. to go 30. A. did B. not did C. not do D. didn’t D. WRITING: (2,5pts) I. Circle the underlined part A, B, C or D that need correcting. (0,5pt) 31. I enjoy cartoon, but I spend a lot of time to watch TV. A B C D 32. I play badminton with my friend yesterday. A B C D II. Use given words to arrange sentences. (1pt) 33. do/ play/ you / When/ football/?/. => ……………..……………………………………………………… 34. family/ dinner/ last/ at/ the/ My/ restaurant/ ate/ week. => ……………..……………………………………………………… III. Rewrite the following sentences as directed. (1pt)
35. Lan like Tom and Jerry. She watches it every day. (so) => ……………..…………………………………………………………… 36. This house is my house. => This house ……………..……………………………………… Phó Hiệu trưởng TTCM Trưởng bộ môn GV ra đề Mai Tấn Lâm Hoàng Văn Hùng Hoàng Văn Hùng Trần Thị Kim Liên HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM VÀ GHI ĐIỂM ANH 6
A. LISTENING: (2 pts) I. Listen to the conversation between Jack and Sam, his friend. Circle the best answer A, B or C. You will listen TWICE. (1pt) Mỗi câu khoanh tròn đúng đạt 0,25 điểm. 1. B 2. C 3. A 4. A II. Listen and complete the student’s note. Write ONE WORD OR NUMBER in each blank. You will listen TWICE. (1pt) Mỗi câu khoanh tròn đúng đạt 0,25 điểm. 5. students 6. playing 7. 3 8. Thursday B. LANGUAGE COMPONENT: (3 pts) I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. (1pt) Mỗi câu khoanh tròn đúng đạt 0,25 điểm. 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. B II. Choose the best option to complete each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D. (2pts) Mỗi câu khoanh tròn đúng đạt 0,25 điểm. 13.C 14.B 15.C 16.D 17.A 18.D 19.B 20.A PART C: READING: (2,5 pts) I. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D. (1pt) Mỗi câu khoanh tròn đúng đạt 0,25 điểm. 21.A 22.A 23.B 24.C II. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to fill in each blank in the following passage. (1,5pt) Mỗi câu khoanh tròn đúng đạt 0,25 điểm. 25.D 26.C 27.A 28.B 29.A 30.D D. WRITING: (2,5 pts) I. Circle the underlined part A, B, C or D that need correcting. (0,5pt) Mỗi câu khoanh tròn đúng đạt 0,25 điểm. 31.B 32.A II. Use given words to arrange sentences. (1pt) Mỗi câu khoanh tròn đúng đạt 0,5 điểm. 33. When do you play football? 34. My family ate dinner at the restaurant last week. III. Rewrite the following sentences as directed. (1pt) Mỗi câu khoanh tròn đúng đạt 0,5 điểm. 35. Lan like Tom and Jerry so She watches it every day. 36. This house is mine.