Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Huệ, Bắc Trà My

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Nội dung Text: Đề thi giữa học kì 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 9 năm 2023-2024 có đáp án - Trường THCS Nguyễn Huệ, Bắc Trà My

PHÒNG GD&ĐT BẮC TRÀ MY TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN HUỆ MATRIX FOR THE SECOND MID-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 9) School year: 2023-2024 No. of Com High PARTS Mark Task types Ques App TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL Pronunci ation: Indicate the word whose underline 2 0.5 0,5 d part is pronounc ed differently LANGUA form the GE others. COMPON Vocabula ENT ry: (3,0) MCQs: 4 1 0.5 0,5 Circle the best option Grammar : MCQs: 6 1,5 Circle the 1 0,5 best option READIN Read the G text fill in 5 1,25 0,5 0,5 0,25 (2,5) the blanks. 5 1,25 Read the 0,5 0,5 0,25 text and choose the 1
correct answer. 2 0,5 (Error identificati on) Circle A, B, C or D which 0,5 is not correct in standard English WRITING 4 2,0 (Sentenc (2,5) e transform ation) Rewrite the 1,0 1,0 sentence s without changing its meaning. 4 1,0 - Listen and choose 1,0 the LISTENI correct NG answer. (2,0) 4 1,0 - Listen and fill in 0,5 0,5 the blanks TOTAL (10,0) 36 10.0 3,0 1,0 2
PHÒNG GD&ĐT BẮC TRÀ MY TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN HUỆ SPECIFICATION FOR THE SECOND MID-TERM TEST (ENGLISH 9) School year: 2023-2024 CONTEN No. of Low High PARTS Mark TS Qs App App TN TL TN TL TN TL TN TL Pronunci Pronunci LANGUA ation: ation: GE - Q1: Indicate COMPON sounds /t/ the word ENT & /d/ whose 2 0.5 0,5 (3,0) - Q2: underline sounds /ʌ/ d part is & / ju/ pronounc ed differently. Vocabula 4 1 Vocabula 0.5 0,5 ry: ry: - Q5: 1 MCQs: word Circle the about best word option noun (dynamite ) - Q6: 1 word about a phrasal (turn off) - Q7: 1 word about a country (Jewish) - Q9: 1 sentence about phrasal 3
verb (look after) Grammar Grammar : : MCQs: - Q3. 1 Circle the sentence best about option Relative clause (who) - Q4: 1 sentence about Suggestio n (I think we should) - Q8: 1 sentence about 6 1.5 passive 1 0,5 form (installed) - Q10: 1 sentence about adv (well) - Q11.1 sentence about Suggestio n (using) - Q12. 1 sentence about Connectiv e (however) READING - Q13: Fill 5 1,25 Read the 0,5 0,5 0,25 (2,5) in the text and 4
blanks fill in the - Q14: Fill blanks. in the blanks - Q15: Fill in the blanks - Q16: Fill in the blanks - Q17: Fill in the blanks - Q18: Read the Choose text and the choose correct the answer correct - Q19: answer. Choose the correct - Q20: Choose the 5 1,25 0,5 0,5 0,25 correct answer - Q21: Choose the correct answer - Q22: Choose the correct answer - Q23: 2 0,5 (Error 0,5 WRITING Identify identificati (2,5) the error on) Circle 5
about A, B or C Relative clause. - Q24: Identify the error about Suggestio n. - Q25: 4 2,0 Rewrite Rewrite the sentence sentences in so as its Suggestio meaning n. keeps - Q26: unchange Rewrite d. sentence in using Adjective/ Adverb. 1,0 1,0 - Q27: Rewrite sentence in Adverb clauses of reason. - Q28: Rewrite sentence in Relative clause. LISTENIN -Q29-32: 4 1,0 - “Listen G Choose and (2,0) the choose 1,0 correct the answer. correct answer -Q33-36: 4 1,0 - Listen 0,5 0,5 6
Fill in the and fill in blanks the blanks. TOTAL(1 36 10.0 2,0 1,0 0,0) 7
PHÒNG GD&ĐT BẮC TRÀ MY KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ II – NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 TRƯỜNG THCS NGUYỄN HUỆ Môn: TIẾNG ANH 9 Thời gian: 45 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Marks: Teacher’s feedback: Full name: ………………………………... Class: 9/….. A. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS TEST (3.0 pts) I. PHONETIC: Choose a word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the letter A, B, C or D. (0.5 pt) 1. A liked B. usedC. closed 2. A. dump B. nuclear C. plumber II. VOCABULARY, GRAMMAR/STRUCTURES: Choose A, B, C or D which best completes the sentences. (2.5 pts) 3. The boy .......................passed my house last night made much noise. A. who B. which C. whose 4. Hoa: .......................make posters on energy saving and hanging them around our school. Nga: Great! Let’s do that. A. What about B. Would you like C. I think we should 5. If people stop using .......................for fishing, a lot of sea creatures will be preserved. A. pesticides B. garbage C. dynamite 6. Don’t forget to .......................the TV when no one watches it. A. turn off B. turn out C. turn on 7. Passover is celebrated in Israel and by all .......................people. A. Jewish B. Vietnamese C. English 8. A new air-conditioner will be .......................this morning. A. installing B. installed C. to install 9. Who looks .......................your children when you are away from home? A. after B. for C. on 10. My brother speaks English.................... A. good B. well C. fluent 11. The man suggested .......................solar energy to save money. A. will use B. using C. has used 12. She is very tired; .......................she has to finish her homework. A. so B. and C. however B. READING (2.5 pts) I. Filling the blanks with proper words in the box below. (1,25 pts) receives important in mother hard In the USA, people celebrate Mother’s Day and Father’s Day. Mother’s Day is celebrated on the second Sunday (13) ……………… May. On this occasion, (14) …………….. usually receives greeting cards and gifts from her husband and children. The best gifts of all American Moms are a day of leisure. The majority of American mothers have outside jobs as well as housework, so their working days are often very (15) …………………….. Flower is an (16) ………………… part of Mother’s Day. Mothers are often given a plant for the occasion, particularly if they are elderly. Father’s Day is celebrated throughout the USA and Canada on the third Sunday in June. The holiday customs are similar to Mother’s Day. Dad also (17) …………………. greeting cards and gifts from his family and enjoys a day of leisure. 8
II. Read the text and choose the correct answer to complete following sentences. (1.25 pts) Many people still believe that natural resources will never be used up. Actually, the world’s energy resources are limited. Nobody knows exactly how much fuel is left. However, we also should use them economically and try to find out alternative sources of power. According to Professor Marvin Burnham of the New England Institute of Technology, we have to start conserving coal, oil and gas before it is too late; and nuclear power is the only alternative. However, many people do not approve of using nuclear power because it’s very dangerous. What would happen if there was a serious nuclear accident? Radioactivity causes cancer and may badly affect the future generations. The most effective thing is that we should use natural resources as economical as possible. 18. What do people think about natural resources? A. Natural resources will never be used up B. Natural resources will be used up. C. Natural resources are renewable. 19. Are the world’s energy resources limited? A. Yes, the world’s energy resources are unlimited. B. Yes, they are. C. No, the world’s energy resources are unlimited. 20. How should we use energy resources? A. Wastefully B. Safely C. Economically 21. Why do many people not approve of using nuclear power? A. Because it’s very expensive. B. Because it’s very clean. C. Because it’s very dangerous. 22. What is the main content of the passage? A. The most effective energy is nuclear energy. B. Natural resources are the best choice. C. Natural resources will never be used up. C. WRITING (2.5 pts) I. Underline one mistake in each of the following sentences. (0.5 pt) 23. I am the boy which is wearing a green shirt. A B C 24. I think we should taking a shower instead of a bath. A B C II. Rewrite these sentences without changing their original meaning, using cues. (2.0 pts) 25. I suggest fixing the faucet. I think we should ................................................................................................................ 26. She is a quick runner. She runs .............................................................................................................................. 27. I want to go home. I feel sick. ............................................................................................................................................... 28. Tet is a festival. Tet occurs in late January or early february. ............................................................................................................................................... 9
D. LISTENING (2.0pts) I. Listen and choose the best answer. (1.0pt) 29. What is the definition of environment in the talk? A. The environment is the world in which people, animals and plants live. B. The environment is the natural world in which people, animals and plants live. C. The environment is the natural world in which animals and plants live. 30. What has led to air pollution? A. The burning of fossil fuel by factories and motor vehicles. B. Acid rains, greenhouse effect. C. Human activities 31. What should we do to reduce water pollution? A. We should pick up litter. B. We should reduce wastewater. C. We should dump harmful rubbish and chemicals at appropriate places. 32. What should we do to preserve the forests? A. We should plant trees. B. We should encourage forestation to replace deforestation. C. We shouldn’t waste of paper. II. Listen and fill in the blanks. (1.0 pt) 33. Thanksgiving Day is a ………………….. celebrated annually on the fourth Thursday of November 34. In America, the first Thanksgiving was celebrated in ……………… 35. Today, Thanksgiving is considered a day for ……………….. members get closer. 36. On Thanksgiving Day, people pray for a good and …………………. future. ................ THE END ............. 10
THE SECOND MID–TERM TEST Subject: ENGLISH 9 ANSWER KEY A. LANGUAGE COMPONENTS TEST (3,0 pts – Each right answer gets 0,25 pt) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 A B A C C A A B A B B C B. READING (2,5 pts – Each right answer gets 0,25 pt) I. 13. in 14. mother 15. hard 16. important 17. receives II. 18. A 19. B 20. C 21. C 22. B C. WRITING (2,5 pts) I. (Each right answer gets 0,25 pt) 23. B 24. A II &III. (Each right answer gets 0,5 pt) 25. I think we should fix the faucet. 26. She runs quickly. 27. I want to go home because I feel sick. 28. Tet is a festival which occurs in late January or early february. D. LISTENING (2,0 pts – Each right answer gets 0,25 pt) 29. A 30. A 31. C 32. B 33. holiday 34. 1621 35. family 36. lucky --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- DÀNH CHO HỌC SINH KHUYẾT TẬT I. 1. B 2. C 3.A 4. C 5. A II. Học sinh viết đúng, đủ và sạch sẽ thì đạt điểm tối đa. Tuỳ vào bài viết của HS GV ghi điểm cho phù hợp. 11
TRƯỜNG ………………………………. ĐỀ KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KỲ II Họ và tên: ………………………………. NĂM HỌC 2023-2024 Lớp: …………. Môn: Tiếng Anh 9 Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (Dành cho HSKT) Điểm Nhận xét của giáo viên I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. (5 pts) 1. A. Lake B. Hedge C. Yard 2. A. Oil B. Gas C. Coal 3. A. Bulb B. Dish C. Can 4. A. Dance B. Float C. Parade 12
5. A. Charity B. Singer C. Dancer II. Copy the text. (5 pts) Living in the country is something that people from the city often dream about. However, in reality, it has both advantages and disadvantages. There are certainly many advantages of living in the country. First, you can enjoy peace and quietness. Moreover, people tend to be friendlier. A further advantage is that there is less traffic, so it is safer for young children. However, there are certain disadvantages or drawbacks to life outside the city. First, because there are fewer people, you are likely to have few friends. In addition, entertainment is difficult to find, particularly in the evening. Furthermore, the fact that there are fewer shops and services so it is quite hard to find jobs. As a result, you may have to travel a long way to work, which can be extremely expensive. In conclusion, it can be seen that the country is more suitable for some people than others. On the whole, it is often the best place for those who are retired or who have young children. In contrast, young or single people who have a career are better provided for in the city. …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………… 13
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